My Quizzer in Criminology a Reviewer Series III

CRIMINOLOGISTS Licensure Examination First Day - 8:00 a.m. – 11:30 a.m.================================================================= REVIEW QUESTIONS IN CRIMINAL JURISPRUDENCE AND PROCEDURE SET ONE INSTRUCTION: Select the correct answer for each of the following questions. Mark only one answer for each item by marking the box corresponding to the letter of your choice on the answer sheet provided. STRICTLY NO ERASURES ALLOWED. Use pencil no. 1 only. MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Berto, with evident premeditation and treachery killed his father. What was the crime committed? A. Murder B. Parricide C. Homicide D. Qualified Homicide 2. PO3 Bagsik entered the dwelling of Totoy against the latter’s will on suspicion that Bitoy keep unlicensed firearms in his home. What was the crime committed by PO3 Bagsik? A. Trespass to Dwelling B. Violation of Domicile C. Usurpation Of Authority D. Forcible Trespassing 3. Charlie and Lea had been married for more than six months. They live together with the children of Lea from her first husband. Charlie had sexual relationship with Jane, the 14 year old daughter of Lea. Jane loves Charlie very much. What was the crime committed by Charlie, if any? A. Simple Seduction B. Qualified Seduction C. Consented Abduction D. Rape 4. Prof. Jose gave a failing grade to one of his students, Lito. When the two met the following day, Lito slapped Prof. Jose on the face. What was the crime committed by Lito? A. Corruption of Public Officials B. Direct Assault C. Slight Physical Injuries D. Grave Coercion www.rkmfiles.net 1 5. A warrant of arrest was issued against Fred for the killing of his parents. When PO2 Tapang tried to arrest him, Fred gave him 1 million pesos to set him free. PO2 Tapang refrained in arresting Fred. What was the crime committed by PO2 Tapang? A. Indirect Bribery B. Direct Bribery C. Corruption of Public Officials D. Qualified Bribery 6. Which of the following is the exemption to the hearsay rule made under the consciousness of an impending death? A. parol evidence B. ante mortem statement C. suicide note D. dead man statute 7. Factum probans means __. A. preponderance of evidence B. ultimate fact C. evidentiary fact D. sufficiency of evidence 8. It refers to family history or descent transmitted from one generation to another. A. inheritance B. heritage C. pedigree D. culture 9. The authority of the court to take cognisance of the case in the first instance. A. Appellate Jurisdiction B. General Jurisdiction C. Original Jurisdiction D. Exclusive Jurisdiction 10. A person designated by litigants. A. Counsel de officio B. Attorney on record C. Attorney at law D. Special counsel the court to assist destitute www.rkmfiles.net 2 11. Which of the following is not covered by the Rules on Summary Procedure? A. Violation of rental laws B. Violation of traffic laws C. The penalty is more than six months of imprisonment D. The penalty does not exceed six months imprisonment 12. It refers to a territorial unit where the power of the court is to be exercised. A. jurisdiction B. jurisprudence C. venue D. bench 13. The Anti-Bouncing Check Law. A. RA 6425 B. RA 8353 C. BP.22 D. RA 6975 14. The taking of another person’s personal property, intent to gain, by means of force and intimidation. A. qualified theft B. robbery C. theft D. malicious mischief with 15. Felony committed when a person compels another by means of force, violence or intimidation to do something against his will, whether right or wrong. A. grave threat B. grave coercion C. direct assault D. slander by deed 16. These are persons having no apparent means of subsistence but have the physical ability to work and neglect to apply himself or herself to lawful calling. A. Pimps B. prostitutes C. gang members D. vagrants 17. A medley of discordant voices, a mock serenade discordant noises designed to annoy and insult. A. Tumultuous B. charivari C. sedition D. scandal of www.rkmfiles.net 3 18. The unauthorized act of a public officer another person to change his residence. A. violation of domicile B. arbitrary detention C. expulsion D. direct assault 19. The deprivation of a private person another person without legal grounds. A. illegal detention B. arbitrary detention C. forcible abduction D. forcible detention of the who compels liberty of 20. An offense committed by a married woman through carnal knowledge with a man not her husband who knows her to be married, although the marriage can be later declared void. A. concubinage B. bigamy C. adultery D. immorality 21. Age of absolute irresponsibility in the commission of a crime. A. 15-18 years old B. 18-70 years old C. 9 years old and below D. between 9 and 15 years old 22. Those who, not being principals cooperate in the execution of the offense by previous or simultaneous acts. A. Accomplices B. Suspects C. principal actors D. accessories 23. The loss or forfeiture of the right of the government to execute the final sentence after the lapse of a certain time fixed by law. A. prescription of crime B. prescription of prosecution C. prescription of judgement D. prescription of penalty 24. A kind of executive penalty is suspended. A. Pardon B. commutation C. amnesty D. reprieve clemency whereby the execution of www.rkmfiles.net 4 25. Infractions of mere rules of convenience designed to secure a more orderly regulation of the affairs of the society. A. mala prohibita B. mala in se C. private crimes D. public crimes 26. Felony committed by a public officer who agrees to commit an act in consideration of a gift and this act is connected with the discharge of his public duties. A. qualified bribery B. direct bribery C. estafa D. indirect bribery 27. The wilful and corrupt assertion of falsehood under oath of affirmation, administered by authority of law on a material matter. A. libel B. falsification C. perjury D. slander 28. Deliberate planning of act before execution. A. Treachery B. evident premeditation C. ignominy D. cruelty 29. Whenever more than 3 armed malefactors shall have acted together in the commission of a crime. A. gang B. conspiracy C. band D. piracy 30. The failure to perform a positive duty which one is bound to. A. Negligence B. imprudence C. omission D. act 31. Ways and means are employed for the purpose of trapping and capturing the law breaker in the execution of his criminal plan. A. Misfeasance B. entrapment C. inducement D. instigation www.rkmfiles.net 5 Insanity B. impossible crimes B. a plea of not guilty B. bail D. conditioned upon his appearance before any court as required under the conditions specified by law. Arraignment B. passion or obfuscation D. The security given for the release of a person in custody. a plea of mercy D. One of the following is an alternative circumstance. A. trial 37. Arraignment C. pre-trial D. A. absolutory causes D. aggravating circumstances C. A.rkmfiles. plea bargaining C. intoxication C. for the purpose of determining such issue. furnished by him or a bondsman. what shall be entered for him? A. any time before entering his plea D. If the accused refuse to plead. or make conditional plea of guilty. A. at any time before his arrest B. a plea of surrender 35. complex crimes 33.net 6 . evident premeditation 34. according to the laws of the land. Those where the act committed is a crime but for reasons of public policy and sentiment there is no penalty imposed. judgment www.32. warrant 38. At what time may the accused move to quash the complaint or information? A. A. Subpoena B. Trial B. preliminary investigation D. Monday morning 36. The examination before a competent tribunal. of the acts in issue in a case. a plea of guilty C. only after entering his plea C. recognizance C. The process whereby the accused and the prosecutor in a criminal case work out a mutually satisfactory disposition on the case subject to court approval. material evidence D. Pre-trial C. A. A. It is evidence of the same kind and to the same state of facts. and the imposition of the proper penalty and civil liability provided for by law on the accused. positive evidence B. trial B. secondary evidence D. A form of evidence supplied by written instruments derived from conventional symbols. corroborative evidence D. real evidence or by 44. such as letters. A. testimonial evidence C. Judgment 40. secondary evidence B. A. corroborative evidence C.net 7 . It is that which. A. unexplained or uncontradicted is sufficient to maintain the proposition affirmed.rkmfiles. prima facie evidence C. standing alone. corroborative evidence D. prima facie evidence C. best evidence 42.39. plea bargaining 41. secondary evidence B. It is an inquiry or proceeding for the purpose of determining whether there is sufficient ground to engender a well founded belief that an offense has been committed and the offender is probably guilty thereof and should be held for trial. When the witness states that he did not see or know the occurrence of a fact. The adjudication by the court that the accused i9s guilty or is not guilty of the offense charged. best evidence 43. which ideas are represented on material substances. documentary evidence B. arraignment C. pre-trial B. negative evidence www. preliminary investigation D. A. Arraignment D. The offender has been previously punished for an offense to which the law attaches an equal or greater penalty or two or more crimes to which it attaches a lighter penalty. A. A. can make known their perception to others. tumultuous affray 49.rkmfiles. all of the above 46. of human fetus before the natural time of birth which results in death. subject of the offense D.juridical question C. victims D. death under exceptional circumstances D.reiteracion B.habitual delinquency www. A.45. used or intended to be used as means in committing an offense B. Suspects B.net 8 . Felony committed when a person is killed or wounded during the confusion attendant to a quarrel among several persons not organized into groups and the parties responsible cannot be ascertained. mysterious homicide C. alarm and scandal B. The unlawful destruction or the bringing forth prematurely. murder D. parricide 48.judicial question 50.recidivism C. abortion B. All persons who can perceive and perceiving. stolen or embezzled and other proceeds or fruits of the offense C. A.prejudicial question D. Personal property that can be subjects for search and seizure. A. witnesses C.legal question B. informers 47. infanticide C. A question which arises in a case the resolution of which is the logical antecedent of the issue involved in said case and the cognisance of which pertains to another tribunal.quasi-recidivism D. A. Infanticide is committed by killing a child not more than…. compound crime B. A.ignorantia legis non excusat B.net 9 . RA D. duty C. A.parens patriae C.complex crime 52.72 hours 53. RA B.48 hours D.accidental crime D. imbecility 57. An act or omission which is a result of a misapprehension of facts that is voluntary but not intentional. A. The quality by which an act may be subscribed to a person as its owner or author. Ignorance of the law excuses therewith. impossible crime C. guilt D. A.rkmfiles. epilepsy D. insanity C. 5425 8553 7659 8551 56. A. An act which would be an offense against persons or property if it was not for the inherent impossibility of its accomplishment. RA C.impossible crime B. One who is deprived completely of reason or discernment and freedom of the will at the time of the commission of the crime. complex crime D.res ipsa loquitur D.mistake of facts C. responsibility B. imputability www. discernment B.24 hours C. The law A. A. RA which reimposed the death penalty.51.36 hours B. accidental crime 55.dura lex sed lex no one from compliance 54. net 10 . accident D. Circumstances wherein there is an absence in the agent of the crime any of all the conditions that would make an act voluntary and hence. justifying D. information C. right against self-incrimination 61. special laws C. and although it comes about through some acts of our will. subpoena B. complaint D. lies beyond the bounds of humanly foreseeable consequences. A. fortuitous event B. A sworn written statement charging a person with an offense. Something that happen outside the sway of our will. A. A. statutory laws of principles. writ 60. fate C. presumption of innocence C. common laws D. This right of the accused is founded on the principle of justice and is intended not to protect the guilty but to prevent as far as human agencies can the conviction of an innocent person. penal laws B. right to due process of law B. A.rkmfiles. any peace officer or other public officer charged with the enforcement of the law violated. alternative C. though there is no criminal liability there is civil liability. destiny 59. Exempting B. aggravating www. usages and rules of action recognized in our country. Known in other countries as the body practices. which are not 62. right to remain silent D.58. subscribed by the offended party. A. When the offender enjoys and delights in making his victim suffers slowly and gradually. estafa or falsification. Recidivism B. treachery D. A. ex post facto law B. A. habitual delinquency C. reiteracion D. A person if within a period of 10 years from the date of his release or last conviction of the crime of serious or less serious physical injuries. Alevosia A.rkmfiles. justifying D. he incurs no criminal and civil liability. hardened criminal www. he is found guilty of any of the said crimes a third time or oftener. One. masochism 65. theft. due process of law 68. Circumstances wherein the acts of the person are in accordance with the law. Recidivist B. quasi-recidivist C.net 11 . habitual delinquent D. proceeds upon inquiry and render judgment after a fair trial. cruelty C. alternative C. B. equal protection of the law C. who at the time of his trial for one crime shall have been previously convicted by final judgment of another crime embraced in the same title of the Revised Penal Code. C. D. A. A. rule of law D. aggravating 64.63. causing him unnecessary physical pain in the consummation of the criminal act. means Craft treachery evident premeditation cruelty 67. robbery. and hence. Ignominy B. The law hears before it condemns. A. exempting B. quasi-recidivism 66. 40 years 74. Criminal Law B. or contempt upon another person. Conclusive 70. Criminal Evidence C. libel B. Accomplices B. The period of prescription of crimes punishable by death. Secondary D.net 12 . slander by deed C. stupid D. Secondary D. A.69. Accessories C. 15 years C. A method fixed by law for the apprehension and prosecution of persons alleged to have committed a crime. intriguing against honor www. Primary B. leading B. Criminal Jurisprudence 73. discredit. A. and for their punishment in case of conviction. A. Persons who take direct part in the execution of a crime. A. A kind of evidence which cannot be rebutted or overcome. hearsay 72. incriminating innocent person D. Instigators D. A. A kind of evidence which cannot be rebutted or overcome. Primary B. Best C. A crime against honor which is committed by performing any act which casts dishonor. misleading C. Conclusive 71. 20 years B.rkmfiles. Criminal Procedure D. Best C. Principals 75. 10 years D. These questions suggest to the witness the answers to which an examining party requires. A. A. warrant D. after having been convicted by final judgment. alias B. Any other name which a person publicly applies to himself without authority of law. Municipal mayor B.rkmfiles. A.76. it is the raising of commotions or disturbances in the State. 15 days C. 30 days B. made upon oath before an authorized magistrate or officer. quasi-recidivism B. dereliction 77. common name C. A. A special aggravating circumstance where a person. fictitious name D. malfeasance C. A. Sedition B. 60 days www. The improper performance of some act which might lawfully be done. subpoena B. The length of validity of a search warrant from its date. shall commit a new felony before beginning to serve such sentence. Coup d’ etat 82. A. Rebellion C.net 13 . nonfeasance D. Police Officer D. or while serving the same. A. Municipal Councilor 81. writ C. reiteracion D. A sworn statement in writing. Treason D. misfeasance B. In its general sense. 10 days D. Private School Teacher C. A. affidavit 78. recidivism C. charivari 80. Which of the following is not a person in authority? A. screen name 79. The mental capacity to understand the difference between right and wrong. Murder C. A. A. committed by a person who owes allegiance to it. A. A.83. It means mistake in the blow. Error in personae C. unauthorized detention 84. A breach of allegiance to a government. Dura lex sed lex D. prison C. rebellion D. Praeter Intentionem www. recidivism D. illegal detention B. It means that the resulting injury is greater than that which is intended. treachery B. treason B. A. Estafa B. A. Praeter Intentionem 89. A building or comfort.rkmfiles. Conspiracy to commit this felony is punishable under the law. jail D. Rape 88. Error in Personae C. Aberratio ictus B. Aberratio Ictus B. espionage C. Rebellion D. dwelling structure. A. discernment 87. arbitrary detention C. sanctuary B. The detention of a person without legal grounds by a public officer or employee. coup d’ etat 85. exclusively used for rest and 86. compulsory detention D.net 14 . Dura Lex Sed lex D. premeditation C. 90. Material B. Accomplished 91. omissions punishable by special penal laws. Seasonal D. making it binding upon all persons who live or sojourn in the Philippines.net 15 . Felonies where the acts or omissions of the offender are malicious. Inference 95. Attempted B. Bill of Attainder B. Prospective D. A. B. General B. Offenses Misdemeanours Felonies Ordinances 96. Diligence C. Negligence B. Acts and A.rkmfiles. Penal Law inflicts punishment without www. Culpable B. A. Territorial C. It indicates deficiency of perception. A. A legislative act which judicial trial. C. Crimes that have three stages of execution. An act or omission which is the result of a misapprehension of facts that is voluntary but not intentional. A stage of execution when all the elements necessary for its execution and accomplishment are present. A. Absolutory Cause B. Conspiracy D. Inculpable 94. Continuing 93. Deliberate D. A. Formal C. Mistake of facts C. Ex Post Facto Law D. Intentional C. Bill of Rights C. Consummated D. Frustrated C. D. A character of Criminal Law. Felony 92. A. Imprudence D. Retroactive 97. A. net 16 . C. force or intimidation.98. What was the crime committed? A. Seizure C. Simple Theft 100. a year old What was A. 19 year old man had sexual intercourse with her 11 girlfriend without threat. The taking of a person into custody in order that he may be bound to answer for the commission of an offense. Robbery B. Farm Theft C. Detention 99.rkmfiles. the crime committed? Child rape Qualified Rape Statutory Rape None of these .End of Set One - www. Qualified Theft D. Pedro stole the cow of Juan. B. Search B.Pedro. D. A. Arrest D. All of these B.m. frustrated or consummated? A. MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Best Evidence D. Real Evidence B. Secondary Evidence C.m. Composite C. D.net 17 . who gives testimonial evidence to a judiciary Witness Defense Prosecution Clerk of Court 5. What crime exists when a single act constitutes two or more grave or less grave felonies or when an offense is a necessary means for committing the other? A. compound 3. The manner of committing the felony 4. A person tribunal A.CRIMINOLOGISTS Licensure Examination First Day . The nature of the offense D. What crime can be charged of one who retains a minor in his service against the minor’s will and under the pretext of reimbursing himself of a debt incurred by the child/s parents? A. inducing a minor D. STRICTLY NO ERASURES ALLOWED. A kind of evidence which shows that a best evidence existed as to the proof of the fact is in question A. The elements constituting the felony C. Complex B. 1 only.rkmfiles. B. Use pencil no. Continuing D. What must be considered in determining whether the crime committed is only attempted. C. ================================================================= REVIEW QUESTIONS IN CRIMINAL JURISPRUDENCE AND PROCEDURE SET TWO INSTRUCTION: Select the correct answer for each of the following questions. – 11:30 a. exploitation of child labor C. white slavery B.8:00 a. Mark only one answer for each item by marking the box corresponding to the letter of your choice on the answer sheet provided. Res gestae 2. kidnapping www. Owes probandi www. when in fact no such deed oæ sale was prepared by him. All of these 7. Estafa B. falsification C. His untimely death resulted in A. Owe probandi D.6. when he is a graduate of criminology the and the has 11. when it is the handwriting of one whom he sufficient familiarity C. of fact 9. How may an ordinary citizen give his opinion regarding handwriting of a person? A. Refers to family history or descent transmitted from one generation to another A. Pedigree B. issued a supposed copy of a deed of sale. suspension of the case C. Inheritance C. postponement of the case D. A died due to heart attack. when he is a questioned document examiner D. Conclusive B. A is liable for A. Tradition Heritage 8. termination of proceedings B. Obligations imposed upon a party to establish their alleged fact by proof are termed as "burden of proof" what is its Latin translation? A. Factum probans B. dismissal of the case for lack of respondent 10. Factum probandum C. During the pendency of his criminal case. a notary public. Disputable D. Forgery D.rkmfiles. when he has to testify only as to the mental emotional state of the one who authored handwriting B. What kind of presumption involves the mental process by which the existence of one fact is inferred from proof of some other facts? A.net 18 . of"law C. A. Preponderance of evidence B. B. attempted estafa B. Evidentiary fact C. Weight of Evidence by the court to a 16. yes. He entered into an agreement with B. Ultimate Fact D. frustrated estafa C. attempted fraud D. yes.net 19 . Logical necessity which resists upon a party at any particular time during the trail to create a prima facie case in his own favor or to overthrow one created against him. A is a supply officer of a municipality. A may be liable for A. Capacity of Knowledge D. Res gestae B. C. Capacity of communication 17. Burden of Proof D. The probative value or credit given particular evidence A. because crime charge is one committed by the wife 13.12. The transaction did not materialize. the privilege of marital communication rule is already abolished B. of evidence which can not be rebutted or overcome Primary Real Best Conclusive www. D.rkmfiles. Which among the following may disqualify a witness A. That kind A. Can a husband testify against the wife in an adultery case? A. Estoppel 14. D. to supply the municipality with some office forms at a price grossly disadvantageous to the municipality. Capacity of recollection C. The agreement was that part of the purchase price must be given to A. no. Capacity of observation B. under the law she is a competent witness C.she is incompetent as a witness yes. A. consummated fraud 15. Burden of Evidence C. A. Which in the following enumeration is an example of an afflictive penalty? A. Theft D.rkmfiles. Piracy B. Judicial Notice 21. infidelity 20. The warden allowed him to go out of his cell without any consideration whatsoever. Cognizance B. aver that it is legally organized pursuant to SEC rules 22. and whose jurisdiction consequently recognizes no territorial limits? A. leave it blank as error is merely clerical and can be corrected during trial C. aver it in the charge sheet D. how do you indicate it in the complaint or information? A. Dean man statute D. A detained prisoner is allowed to eat and drink in a nearby restaurant on several occasions.18. destierro 19. however. Exemption to the hearsay rule made under the consciousness of an impending death.net 20 . Judicial Admission C. Fine B. He is. wellguarded at all times. Parole Evidence B. What if the offended party is a corporation. state the name of the corporation B. Post mortem statement 23. What crime is committed against mankind. dereliction of duty D. Cognizance of certain facts which judges may properly take as fact because they are already known to him A. prison mayor D. Felonies C. Ante-mortem statement C. The warden may be charged with A. Suicide www. leniency or laxity C. Judicial Knowledge D. negligence of duty B. arresto mayor C. unless their commission affects the peace and security of the territory or the safety of the state is endangered. This is an EXCEPTION to the general characteristic of Criminal Law which is A. Generality C. American Rule D. crimes are not triable in the courts of that country. he does not appear to be the most guilty C. Prospectivity B. English Rule 29. Spanish Rule C. Mala Incest D. not more than two accused can be state witness D. do not dismiss the action but should order the filing of a new information C. what is that requirement that must be satisfied in order that one or more of those accused can qualify as state witness? A.net 21 . Mistake of the blow D. Mala Inse C. A. Felony B. Heads of State or Ambassadors can NOT be held criminally liable in another state or place of assignment under the principles of international law. he seems to be not guilty 27. Mala prohibita 26. Mistake in identity 28. French Rule B. Mistake of facts C. he appears to be the least guilty B. Immunity 25. What should the court do when the offense is less serious physical injuries and the offense proved is serious physical injuries and the defendant may be convicted only of the offense as charged? A. When several persons are co-accused for a crime committed. Ignorantia Facti Excusat means: A. Ignorance of the law B. stay with the action and decide accordingly to avoid double jeopardy www.rkmfiles. Territoriality D.24. dismiss the action D. Under this Rule. Refers generally to acts made criminal by special laws A. do not dismiss the action B. Light C. D. When the penalties A. so that such person is deemed not to have transgressed the law and is free from both criminal and civil liability. B. law attaches capital punishment the felony is said to be Grave Light Less grave Serious or afflictive 31. when it is not immoral 32. Exempting circumstances D. Serious 33.rkmfiles. disregard of age and sex C. What circumstance can be considered aggravating with the slaying of an 80 year old woman? A. A. When is evidence presented in court for admissibility considered relevant to the issue? A. 3 years B. Mitigating Circumstance C. when it has direct bearing and actual connection to the facts and issue C.30. A. disrespect of rank 34. Less grave D. when it is not repugnant in taste D. 6 months imprisonment D. neglect of elders D. six years C. when it is not excluded by the rules B. abuse of confidence B. C. 4 years and 2 months www. Justifying circumstances B. Infractions to the law punishable by Aresto Menor or a fine not exceeding 200 pesos or both.net 22 . Grave B. Aggravating circumstances 35. The rule on summary procedure applies to criminal cases where the penalty prescribed by the law for the offense charged does not exceed A. Acts of a person which are said to be in accordance with the law. Specific C.net 23 . Which of the following aggravating circumstances may not be offset by mitigating circumstances? A. without having principally participated therein. can a priest testify as to the alleged defamatory words given to him by the accused during confession? A. Who are criminally liable. privilege given to a husband to a wife C. homicide to murder in case of treachery A. Mala in se www. Inherent 38. In case of oral defamation. Witnesses B. e. takes part subsequent to the commission. Ignominy D. privilege communication given to an attorney by a client D. privilege given by a patient to a doctor B. privilege communication given by a penitent to a priest 37. Accomplices 39. Generic B. Principals D. What are the infractions of mere rules of convenience designed to secure a more orderly regulation of the affairs of society? A. A. Mala prohibita B. Accessories C. They are aggravating circumstance which change the nature of the crime. where the priest is the only available witness. night time or recidivism. when having knowledge of the commission of the crime. either in profiting by the effects of the crime or by concealing or destroying the body of the crime? A. An aggravating circumstance which generally apply to all crimes such as dwelling. Qualifying D. Qualifying D. Taking advantage of superior strength 41. Felonies C. Specific C. Violation of ordinance D. Inherent 40.36. Generic B.i. Night time C. Treachery B.rkmfiles. Santos. delivering prisoners from jails B. Concubinage D. forgery 46. What is the liability of the jail guard if the evasion of a prisoner should take place through his negligence? A. B took possession of the warrant. Bigamy 44. quasi-recidvist 47. delinquent D. Mr. Jane an American. estafa. Exclusionary doctrine C. endorsed it at the back and was able to encash it.rkmfiles. all of these C. A treasury warrant was payable to A or his representative. he courted Ms. if any? A. evasion through negligence C. Silver platter B. While he was there. What is the liability of Mr. recidivist B. Investigation D. They eventually got married. Santos went to the United States. wrote the name of A.net 24 . A person who has within a period of 10 years from the date of release or last conviction is said to have been found guilty of the same offense particularly those of physical injuries. falsification D. What is the means sanctioned by the rules of ascertaining in a judicial proceeding the truth respecting a matter of fact? A. reckless imprudence D. None of these B. Evidence B. Miranda ruling 43. What doctrine allows evidence obtained by police officers in an illegal search and seizure to be used against the accused? A. Alona filed an action against him for violating their marriage. Procedure C. When Mr. Adultery C. conniving with or consenting to evasion 45. B is liable for A. habitual Delinquent C. Fruit of the poisonous tree D. Santos returned to the Philippines his wife.42. Trial www. theft and robbery is considered as a: A. Estafa B. mistake in the blow C. A. res nullus B. What acts punishable by law are either intended to directly impute to an innocent person the commission of crime or which are calculated to blemish the honor or reputation of a person by means of intrigue? A. physical injuries B. Group B. D A. Brigands D. fired a revolver at B. Team 49. blackmail C. is liable for murder B. Band C. D knew about it all along. B survived. is an accessory to the crime C. result is greater than intended 52.48. res ipsa loquitur C. oral defamation B. After the conspiracy but made no move to report to the authorities. What is that statement made by a wounded person shortly after he received several bolo stabs narrating therein the whole incident to another which is admissible in evidence as part of A. incurs no criminal liability 51. B. “Aberratio ictus” in which the perpetrator is criminally liable means A. attempted felony C.rkmfiles. frustrated felony D. res gestae 50. res judicata D. What crime did A commit? A. incriminatory machinations 53. slander D. with intent to kill. B and C conspire to kill X. A. He inflicted a fatal wound. Whenever more than three armed malefactors shall have acted together in the commission of an offense it is deemed to have been committed by: A. a witch. C are boardmates of D. mistaken identity B. A brought B to a hospital. results are less than intended D. In this case.net 25 . and due to timely medical assistance. because he is perceived to cause misery among many in the barangay. is a conspirator D. no criminal liability www. A. regional state prosecutor 58. Pardon B. signed by a judge to a peace officer commanding him to search property described therein and bring it before A. executive judge B. who is empowered to order or change the venue or place of trial in order to avoid miscarriage of justice? A. Subpoena D. It requires the concurrence of two things. penalty www. there can be no evidence of a writing. secondary evidence B. Summons name of the and directed for personal the court? 56. What rule is observed when generally. regional trial courts D. Adherence to the enemy C. Breach of allegiance to a government. corollary evidence D. Espionage D. the contents of which is the subject matter of inquiry A. committed by a person who owes allegiance to it. parole evidence C. warrant of arrest B. subject to the three limitations to be executed by the President? A. that there being an actual assembly of men and for such purpose of executing a treasonable design by force A. Treason B. What is the order in writing issued in the People of the Philippines. Amnesty C. A. Adherence to the enemy C. What kind of executive clemency wipes away the guilt of the convicted person.54. Aid or comfort B. Under the new Constitution.rkmfiles. Reprieve D. Levying war D. best evidence 59. supreme court C. Levying war 55. All of the foregoing 57. Search warrant C.net 26 . Sedition 64. What crime is committed when the offender. Conspiracy to commit treason C. In what instance can alibi (the weakest defense) acquire commensurate strength in evidential value? A. or the raising of commotions and disturbance on board a ship against authority of the commander A. when it changes the burden of proof B. when evidence for the prosecution is strong C. What is that rule where an offended party may intervene in the proceeding personally or through a counsel? A. Mutiny B. Refers to resistance to a superior officer. fiscal or mayor is guilty of what crime? A. complex 62. rule of facilitation C. Compound C. Composite B. Espionage D. Miranda Rule B. Misprision of Treason 61. where no positive and proper identification has been satisfactorily made D. Treason B. rule of reservation 65. It is a forcible depredation on the high seas without lawful authority and done with animo furandi and in the spirit and intention of universal hostility A. Mutiny B. Piracy C.60. Continuing D. commits a series of acts in the same place at about the same penal provision? A. A person having knowledge of the plans to commit treason and fails to disclose such information to the governor. acting under a single criminal resolution.rkmfiles. Espionage D. Piracy C. Sedition www. rule of intervention D. Espionage D.net 27 . when questions on whether or not accused committed the offense is clear 63. Policeman B. continuous offense D.net 28 . motion to dismiss B. liable for obscene publication (as co-publisher) C. Intoxication 68. Treachery D. A is A. liable for the obscene publications (as author) www.rkmfiles. Recidivism B. liable for pornography D. act carelessly or negligently C. act with discernment B. was stolen from his office and was published by someone. A is known for writing obscene material. complex crime C. What would be the nature of action for a person over nine years of age and under fifteen to incur criminal liability? A. entitled “Hayop”. Which among the following instances is an example of a qualifying circumstance to a crime of murder? A. methods or forms in the execution thereof which tend specially to ensure its execution without risk to himself arising from the defense which the offended partly might make? A. civil interdiction 71. barangay tanod 70. Who is a person in authority among the following: A. What kind of aggravating circumstance is present when a person commits any of the crimes against person. motion for reconsideration D. MMDA enforcer C. capital punishment B. One of his writings. What kind of motion may be availed arraignment? A. show malice 69. The authorities got hold of the obscene magazine. motion for review C. not liable at all B. barangay captain D.66. employing such means. motion to quash of anytime before 67. show criminal intent D. Insanity C. Anga whose help was sought by B. ill treatment D. file the case himself before the barangay court 76. A punched B without any provocation. serious physical injuries C. How should the plea to a complaint or information be made by the accused? A. personally. by the approval of the court and upon written request by the accused C. Considering the nature of the offense committed by A. file the case directly with the court B. describe the property subject matter with such particularity as to properly identify. B’s injury required medical attendance for a period of seven (7) days.rkmfiles.net 29 . the Barangay Court has no jurisdiction over the case C. Assuming that the result of the action of A was death. through counsel in open court and on the record D.72. the police must label the property in a way that will distinguish it from others D. SP01 T. 74. took the statement of B and did not know what to do. slight physical injury B. During a drinking spree. the particular offense charged 73. file the case before the prosecutor’s office D. Anga should: A. instruct B to file the matter first before the barangay C C. What should be done in cases of offenses against property where the name of the offended party is unknown? A. less serious physical injury 75. personally by written motion Situation 1 – A and B are neighbors. Anga should. SP01 T. what is pivotal is the name and description of the offender C. Immediately thereafter SP01 T. None of the above www. instead of mere physical injuries against B. court must cause the true name to be inserted B. in his investigation and report concentrate and stress on: A. in open court and of the record B. whether or not B was also drunk D. whether or not A was drunk at the time B. What crime was committed by A? A. which describes the statement of A? A. A threatened to kill B. One time. Corroborative C. Direct 79. Homicide D. Assuming that A was drunk at the time that he committed the offense. res gestae a. Grave threats C. What crime was committed stabbing? A. dying declaration b. The declaration was not written C. mitigating circumstance B. aggravating circumstance C. exempting circumstance D. B was able to identify him. 78. his drunkenness would be considered as: A. Circumstantial B. Based on situation # 2. what basis could be used to establish the identify of A? A. B has a grudge against A Situation 3 – During custodial investigation at the Central Police District in Quezon City. Assuming that B was dying at the time that he informed SP01 Mahabagin of the identity of his notorious assailant and believing that he was dying at the time. but he did not actually die. Before A could escape. are also mortal enemies. B’s death is indispensable B. One night in a lighted place. Murder by A of the following best that night time of the 80. No mention was made that B’s wound was fatal D. A has a common reputation of being a killer.77. declaration against interest 81. As B lay wounded.net 30 . Parricide B. Common reputation B. “A” was informed of his www. In the foregoing case. SP01 arrested B on the basis of such declaration. Hearsay D. A suddenly stabbed B from behind. SP01 Mahabagin responded and to whom B pointed to A as the one who attacked him.rkmfiles. alternative circumstance Situation 2 – A and B who are brother-in-laws. B’s statement identifying A as his assailant may not be considered a dying declaration because: A. Admissible because A was informed of his right to counsel but he could not afford to hire one B. admissible because A did not insist on his right to counsel and he voluntarily waived it D.constitutional right. A would like to appeal his case to a higher court. The waiver was not made in writing and in the presence of the counsel D. filed the information against him and the judge after trial. Inadmissible because A must be provided with counsel free of charge C. with 30 days from the time A’s counsel de oficio who was absent of the time of the promulgation received a written copy of the judgment of conviction. within 15 days from the promulgation of judgment D. Assuming that all conditions in the waiver were properly observed except the right to counsel which was waived because A could not afford the service of one. convicted A on the basis of his written confession. admissible in evidence against him because all the conditions were present in the waiver 84.net 31 . 82. He decided to waive his right to counsel and proceed to make a statement admitting commission of a robbery. B. Assuming that the public persecutor on the basis of the now written confession of A.rkmfiles. The right to remain silent and to counsel cannot be waived B. within 15 days from the date of pre-trial conference www. it was not made in the presence of the counsel C. who waived his right of counsel because he could not afford one. A’s statement is inadmissible in evidence against him because A. The appeal should be filed A. to remain silent and to have competent and independent counsel. It was not made in writing 83. A’s statement will be A. within 30 days from the date the case was submitted for resolution C. 1983 D. law enforced at the time of the commission of the offense B. January 1. Criminal jurisdiction over the subject matter shall be determined by the A. in compliance of the mandate of the consultation and the rules and in order to fix the identity of the accused is A. Assuming that A’s appeal was filed 30 days after his counsel de oficio learned of the judgment. law enforced at the time of trial C. preliminary investigation D. law enforced at the time of the institution/filing of the offense D. pre-trial conference C. not be given due course because the confession was really inadmissible against A and the judgment of conviction must be reversed D. Criminal procedure is a A. criminal investigation B. Defined as the taking of a person into custody in order that he may be bound to answer for the commission of an offense A. December 1. The stage of a judicial proceeding whereby the accused shall be informed of the nature and cause of the accusation against him. procedural or remedial law 89. Not be given due course. August 1. law enforced at the time of the discovery of the offense 88. Detention or imprisonment D. administrative law D. be given due course because it was filed within the reglamentary period C. the appeal should A.net 32 . 1980 87. 1983 B.85. arraignment and plea 90. constitutional law C.rkmfiles. The Judiciary Reorganization Act of 1980 (BP Blg 129) took effect on A. January 17. Investigation www. because the judgment which were rendered after trial was obviously correct anyway B. None of these 86. Custody C. 1983 C. None of these B. substantive law B. 91. Under the law, the warrant of arrest shall remain valid unless A. after the lapse of ten days from its issuance B. it is served or lifted C. after the lapse of the period for the police to execute the same D. after the lapse of the period for the police to make his report 92. The procedure which allows the affidavit or counteraffidavit of the parties or their witnesses to constitute as their direct oral testimony in the case, subject however to cross examination A. Revised Rule on Summary Procedure B. Revised Rules on Criminal Procedure C. Revised Rules on Evidence D. Revised Penal Code 93. The right of an accused to bail is a matter of right in those cases A. falling within the jurisdiction of the RTC before or after conviction, except capital offenses B. falling within the jurisdiction of the MTC before or after conviction C. falling within the jurisdiction of the RTC where the penalty for the offense does not exceed twenty years imprisonment D. all of these 94. Preliminary investigation is required in those criminal cases where the penalty provided by law for the offense charged is A. over 6 years imprisonment regardless of the amount of fine B. exceeding 6 years imprisonment irrespective of the amount of fine C. at least 4 years, 2 months and 1 day of imprisonment irrespective of the amount of fine D. not exceeding 6 years imprisonment irrespective of the amount of fine 95. Violation of City or municipal ordinance are within the A. concurrent jurisdiction of the RTC and MTC B. exclusive original jurisdiction of the RTC C. exclusive jurisdiction of the Family Court D. exclusive original jurisdiction of the MTC 96. The process of adjudication of disputes in barangay level whereby the Punong Barangay or the Pangkat members shall www.rkmfiles.net 33 endeavor to convince or encourage the parties to settle their dispute amicably. A. Arbitration B. Confrontation C. Compromise D. Mediation/conciliation 97. The power or authority of a court to try, hear and decide a class of criminal case brought before it A. criminal jurisprudence B. criminal jurisdiction C. criminal procedure D. criminal due process of law 98. If no criminal action has yet been instituted, a motion to quash a search warrant and/or suppress evidence obtained thereby by the police shall be filed in and resolve by the A. court which has jurisdiction over the place where the offense was committed B. court that issued the search warrant C. court where the suspects reside D. court within the judicial region of the place where the crime was committed 99. The personnel of a court who shall take charge of the business of the court, supervises all the other staff of the court or the alter ego of the judge in all official businesses of the court in his absence. A. court interpreter B. clerk of court C. legal researcher D. personal secretary of judge 100. The law or under A. RA B. RA C. RA D. RA providing the rights of person arrested, detained custodial investigation is No 7691 No 8493 No 7438 No 7659 - End of Set Two - CRIMINOLOGISTS Licensure Examination First Day - 12:30 p.m. – 3:30 p.m. www.rkmfiles.net 34 ================================================================= REVIEW QUESTIONS IN LAW ENFORCEMENT ADMINISTRATION SET ONE INSTRUCTION: Select the correct answer for each of the following questions. Mark only one answer for each item by marking the box corresponding to the letter of your choice on the answer sheet provided. STRICTLY NO ERASURES ALLOWED. Use pencil no. 1 only. MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The amount and nature of the demands of the police service are not the same on all three (3) shifts. It is therefore necessary to make available maximum manpower at the time the police service is of greatest demand. This is organization by: A. Clientele B. Purpose C. Time D. Process The PNP has a program which ensures the deployment policemen in busy and crime prone areas. This is called A. patrol deployment program B. roving patrol program C. patrol and visibility program D. police patrol program of 2. 3. All regional appointments of commissioned officers commence with the rank of: A. Senior Police Officer I B. Inspector C. Police Officer III D. Senior Inspector In busy and thickly populated commercial streets like those in Divisoria, police patrol is very necessary. Since there are several types of patrol, which of the following will you recommend: A. Horse patrol B. Mobile patrol C. Foot patrol D. Helicopter patrol 4. 5. It is the product resulting from the collection, evaluation, analysis, and interpretation of all available www.rkmfiles.net 35 information which concerns one or more aspects of criminal activity and which is immediately or potentially significant to police planning. A. Investigation B. Information C. Data D. intelligence 6. These are work programs of line divisions which related to the nature and extent of the workload and the availability of resources. A. administrative plan B. operational plan C. strategic plan D. tactical plan It is the premier educational institution for the police, fire and jail personnel. A. Philippine Military Academy (PMA) B. Development Academy of the Philippines C. Philippine College of Criminology (PCCR) D. Philippine Public Safety College (PPSC) A crew which is assigned to a mobile car usually consist of ___________________. A. a driver and intelligence agent B. a driver and traffic man C. a driver and a recorder D. a driver, recorder and supervisor An industrial complex must establish physical defense. It must have A. the building itself B. perimeter barriers C. communication barriers D. window barriers its first line of 7. 8. 9. 10. All of the following are members of the People’s Law Enforcement Board (PLEB), EXCEPT: A. Three (3) members chosen by the Peace and Order Council from among the respected members of the community. B. Any barangay Captain of the city/municipality concerned chosen by the association of the Barangay Captains. C. Any member of the Sangguniang Panglungsod/Pambayan D. A bar member chosen by the Integrated bar of the Philippines (IBP) www.rkmfiles.net 36 11. It is the circumspect inspection of a place to determine its suitability for a particular operational purpose. A. Inspection B. Surveillance C. Survey D. Casing 12. In the civil service system, merit and fitness are the primary considerations in the ______________. A. two-party system B. evaluation system C. promotional system D. spoils system 13. Registration of a security agency must be _______________________. A. Securities and Exchange Commission B. National Police Commission C. Department of National Defense D. PNP Criminal Investigation Group done at the 14. Bicycle patrol has the combined advantage of ________________ since they can be operated very quietly and without attracting attention. A. reduced speed and greater area covered. B. Mobility and wide area coverage C. Shorter travel time and faster response D. Mobility and stealth 15. The budget is a _________________ in terms of expenditure requirements. A. tactical plan B. financial plan C. work plan D. control plan 16. The term used for the object of surveillance is a subject while the investigator conducting the surveillance is: A. rabbit B. surveillant C. traffic enforcement D. patrol 17. It is a police function which serves as the backbone of the police service. In all types of police stations, there is www.rkmfiles.net 37 assign foot patrol in congested and busy patrol beats but assign a roving mobile patrol to cover beats which are not covered by foot patrol 22.a specific unit assigned to undertake this function in view of its importance. Frederick the Great 23. Alexander the Great C. managers B. D. District Director B. PNP 21. You are the Patrol Supervisor for the morning shift. patrol 18. inspections 19. assign mobile patrols only in strategic places C. Personnel D. A. vice control B. traffic management D. as a good citizen D. A. wants to be known to the policeman B. Which of the following is considered as the most important factor I formulating an effective patrol strategy? A. salary rates of police personnel 20. You don’t have enough men to cover all the patrol beats. Who among the following have summary disciplinary powers over errant police members? A. The father of organized military espionage was: A. Which of the following will you implement? A. criminal investigation C. Provincial Director Chief of Police Chief. Barriers C. C. assign roving mobile patrol with no foot patrol B. Which of the following is the most common informer can give information to the police? A. It is the weakest link in security chain. Genghis Khan D. rank of the patrol commander D. maintain your patrolmen at the station and just wait for calls for police assistance D. monetary reward C. revenge www. adequacy of resources of the police station C. Akbar B.rkmfiles.net reason why 38 . training of station commander B. the bulk information comes from: A. line 27. Small alley like those in the squatters area of Tondo can be best penetrated by the police through: A. require completed work D. What administrative support unit conducts identification and evaluation of physical evidences related to crimes. business world B. with emphasis on their medical. look behind B. EXCEPT A. window shop. EXCEPT: A. Logistics Service B. communications media of the most the valuable www. count the number of supervisor C. stop quickly. supervision C. the latter is: A. an underworld informant D. On many occasions. watch reflection D.net 39 . A.24. mobile patrol C. chemical. biological and physical nature. When the subject identifies or obtains knowledge that the investigation is conducting surveillance on him. define authority and responsibility 25. establish objectives and standards B. Some of the instructions in foot surveillance are following. sold out C. never mind what happens to the paper C. management D. the following must be done. Finance Center 26.rkmfiles. foot patrol B. cut out B. retrace steps 30. Crime Laboratory C. helicopter patrol 29. newspaper clippings C. Communication and Electronic service D. burnt out D. Those who are charged with the actual fulfillment of the agency’s mission are ________. A. staff B. get out 28. highway patrol D. To improve delegation. drop paper. What should be undertaken by a Security Officer before he can prepare a comprehensive security program for his industrial plan? A. attrition 32. research D. A. observation B. security survey D. commissionship C. COPS on the blocks B. security check C. security conference B.31. Traffic Management Command D. lateral entry D. This patrol method utilizes disguise. Civil Relations Unit B. He wants his subordinates to be drawn closer to the people in the different barangays. Police Inspector Juan Dela Cruz is the Chief of Police of a municipality. He should adopt which of the following projects? A.net 40 . Oplan Bakal C. Oplan Sandugo D. A method of collecting information wherein the investigator merely uses his different senses. deception and lying in wait rather than upon high-visibility patrol techniques. A. security education 34. Aviation Security Command 36. high-visibility patrol 35. low-visibility patrol B. regular promotion B. Highly qualified police applicants such as engineers. Traffic Operations Center C. It enforces all traffic laws and regulations to ensure the safety of motorists and pedestrians and attain an orderly traffic. interrogation www. casing C. directed deterrent patrol C. A. nurses and graduates of forensic sciences can enter the police service as officers through: A. Complan Pagbabago 33.rkmfiles. decoy patrol D. EXCEPT A. In the police work. feeling C. Inspector C. One way of extending the power of police observation is to get information from persons within the vicinity. ambition B. Pedro is a thief who is eying at the handbag of Maria. 48. the following must be observed. PNP Directorate for Human Resource and Doctrine Development C. drinking www. avoid eye contact C.rkmfiles. Superintendent 40. intention D. PO1 Santos Reyes is standing a few meters from Maria. Graduates of the Philippine National Police Academy (PNPA) are automatically appointed to the rank of: A. eating D. interrogation D. In stationary surveillance.net 41 . their utilization in tracking down lost persons or illegal drugs. recognize fellow agent D. PNP Directorate for Personnel and Records Management D. drop subject 38. Senior Superintendent B. data gathering B. opportunity 39. if burnt out. Senior Police Officer 1 D. interview 42. never meet subject face to face B.PNP in-service training programs are under the responsibility of the: A. PNP Directorate for Plans B. PNP Directorate for Comptroller ship 41. Dogs have an acute sense of _______________ thus.37. hearing C. A. this is called: A. The thief’s desire to steal is not diminished by the presence of the police officer but the _______________ for successful theft is. field inquiry C. A. smell B. Economic resources 44. casing D. soundness of moral principles. honesty and freedom from moral delinquencies is referred to as A. Human Cargo Trafficking C. helicopter C. criss-cross www. undercover operation C. Intelligence on _________________ makes heavy use of geographic information because law enforcement officials must know exact locations to interdict the flow of drugs. Secret Agent B.43. other than members of the AFP.net 42 . integrity B. surveillance the 46. all of these 48. provincial guards. bicycle 45. clockwise B. free-wheeling E. A. Logistics B. Private detective D. discretion D. This is a person who does detective work for hire. “Tiktik” C. counter clockwise D. reward or commission. research B. The uprightness in character.rkmfiles. All of these 47. motorcycle B. A. A method of collection of information wherein investigator tails or follows the person or vehicle. patrol car D. A. What patrol pattern have you applied? A. BJMP. moral E. Narcotics Trafficking D. Which of the following is most ideally suited to evacuation and search-and-rescue duties? A. PNP or any law enforcement agency of the government. straightway C. loyalty C. Going east while foot patrolling and turning right after reaching the end of your beat and turning right after reaching the other end of the road and again turning right until you completed the cycle by reaching back to your origin of patrolling. Undercover E. eviction D. bike patrol B. regular operating programs D. short 52. canine D.49. Which of the following is not a commissioned officer? A. team policing 50.net 43 . police 54. Medium D. helicopter patrol 51. Which of the following refers to the long range planning? A. squadron C. Intermediate B. Which theory of patrol state that police visibility increases the opportunity to apprehend criminals by soothing them and letting them believe that their crimes will not be detected? A. asst. marine patrol D. theory of omnipresence D. patrol operation that covers large park areas. special operating programs 53. all of the above www. Inspector B. grassy fields or wooded areas requires the use of A. foot C. Strategic C. high visibility C. Without air force capability. extra office C. meeting unusual needs B. The act of expelling a squatter by the legal process is called: A. demolition B. low profile theory B. Which of the following is the oldest type of patrol? A. The operational plan which is designed to met everyday or year around needs is called A. tear down 55. chief D. senior superintendent C. chief superintendent E. horse B. horse patrol C.rkmfiles. investigation D. R. What is the patrol used to locate prowlers. 8551 C. Which of the following best defines the word self-reliant? A. crime prevention C.A.A. records C. vulnerability E. advantages B. features C. 5487 B. foot B. www. importance E. called for service D. dog Which of the following Organization under the DILG? A.56. and the control of unruly crowds and riots? A. All but one are the primarily line operation in police organization A. all of these 57.A. R. R.rkmfiles. believability D. patrol B.net 44 . errors 68. 6975 laws established the Police 69. 1174 D.A. ability B. R. criminal apprehension 58. bicycle D. burglars hiding in large buildings or stores. disadvantages D. Criminals can hear the sound of the helicopter coming and so element of surprise is lost which is one of the ______________ of air patrol: A. traffic 59. Which of the following words has the same meaning as the word credibility? A. capacity C. horse C. observation B. 70. cover within a cover 73. natural D. trumpet B. Governors and mayors. artificial B. Who is the most important organization? A. 25 years C. What is the principle of organization suggesting that communication should ordinarily go upward and downward through establish channels in the hierarchy? A. DND C. 35 years for officers and new 75. What type of cover uses actual or true background? A. 30 years D. radio D. The Chief of Police officer in the police 71. Span of Control C. patrol officer D. It is constitutionally and legally mandated to administer and control the Philippine National Police. Which of the following is the oldest warning device? A.rkmfiles. 15 years B. NAPOLCOM B. none of these 76. horn C.net 45 . DND C. general B. 20 years E. Chain of Command B. DILG B. are automatically deputized as representatives of the A. upon having been elected and having qualified as such. DFA www. A. NAPOLCOM D. multiple cover C. PLEB D. What is the optional retirement officers of the police service? A. traffic officer E. siren 72. investigator C. Unity of Command D. Delegation of Authority 74. PLEB D.rkmfiles. span of control 81. Comparative Police System C. span of control E. Under RA 6975.net 46 . jail or other allied services? A. It is the central receiving entity for any citizen’s complaint against the members and officers of the PNP. 5 percent C. we are referring to: A. fire. chain of command B. A. Command responsibility D. responsible parenthood 79. no one should exercise all the authority for making decisions. This refers to A. 20 percent www. to be reckoned from the date of his original appointment in the police. DILG B. A. Integrated Police System B. 10 percent D.77. Community Oriented Policing System(COPS) 80. IAS E. A police strategy which aims to directly involve members of the community in the maintenance of peace and order by police officers. delegation of responsibility C. delegation of authority E. Police Visibility D. NAPOLCOM C. When we say that a commander is directly responsible for any act or omission of his subordinates in relation to the performance of their official duties. 15 percent E. chain of command B. Also. Ombudsman 78. unity of command D. 2 percent B. command responsibility C. a police officer is entitled to a longevity pay equivalent to how many percent (%) of his monthly basic salary for every five years of service. No person in an organization can do all the tasks necessary for accomplishing group objective. A. human resource development and continuing education of all the personnel of BJMP. Criminology Board Examination D. The premier educational institution for the training. Gen. BFP and PNP. Inspector B. A. Raul Imperial C. Gen. Gen. Umberto Rodriquez D.82. who was the first Director General of the Philippine National Police (PNP)? A. incarceration 84. PCCR C. In the history of our police force. Cesar Nazareno B. police patrol examination E. The credential extended by the Civil Service Commission/National Police Commission for the purpose of conferring status for permanent appointment in the police service. Under the law. This term refers to the period when a police officer is actively engaged in the performance of his duty. A. on duty E. A.rkmfiles. Gen. reprimand E. Senior Inspector D. off duty B. the city/municipal jail warden should have a rank of __. Recaredo Sarmiento 86. police eligibility 85. PNPA B. The act of temporarily denying an officer the privilege of performing his police duties in consequence of an offense and violation of rules and regulations. police visibility C. dismissal B. PNTC D. on call D. suspension D. A. on the way 83. off limits C. Superintendent www.net 47 . police credibility B. restriction C. PPSC 87. Chef Inspector C. Director General C. Fiscals www. A. It exercise supervision and control over all city and municipal jails. Women’s Desk D. Bureau of Prisons C. Department of Justice D. Director General C. Director D. Homicide Division 94. A. Which of the following administers and attends to cases involving crimes against chastity? A. A. Local Government Executives D. Chief Superintendent B. Deputy Director General 91. It exercise supervision and control over the provincial jails. Local Government 92. They are automatically deputized as NAPOLCOM representatives to exercise supervision and control over PNP units. The required rank for the Chief of Jail Bureau. A. 25% B. CIDG B. Bureau of Prisons C.rkmfiles. 20% 93. Department of Justice D. The required rank for the head of the Fire Bureau. Director D. Deputy Director General 89.88. Chief Superintendent B. Judges C. Provincial Government 90. BJMP B. 10% D. The annual reservation percentage quota for women in the PNP recruitment is __. A. BJMP B. DSWD C.net 48 . 5% C. A. Chief of Police B. Chiefs of Police D. Chief of police C. A.The number of eligible for which the Regional Director may recommend for Provincial Director to the governor is __.net 49 . Assignment D. Regional Directors B. A. NBI B. A.End of Set One - www. reassignment of PNP members outside of their town residences. One of the following exercises control and supervision over the PNP units during elections. Ombudsman C. Mayors 96. Designation 99. Judge B. Governor 97. Priests C. A.rkmfiles. Employment B.95. COMELEC D. of the PNP for the purpose of protection of lives and properties. Assignment D. Employment B. They have the authority to recommend to the Provincial Director the transfer. The utilization of units or elements. The orderly and organized physical movement of elements or units of the PNP. Deployment C. 5 D. The head of a local peace and order council is the __. A. Designation 98. enforcement of laws and maintenance of peace and order. Mayor D. Deployment C. A. 2 B. 4 . 3 C. DILG 100. ================================================================= REVIEW QUESTIONS IN LAW ENFORCEMENT ADMINISTRATION SET TWO INSTRUCTION: Select the correct answer for each of the following questions.m. Organized Crime B. you need not fear the result of a hundred battles”. A Chinese Philosopher who once said: “If you know your enemy and know yourself. A. A. Military Information C. of virtual monopoly or criminal activity in a field that provides a continuing financial profit. Interrogation B.12:30 p. Investigation It is defined as evaluative and interpreted information concerning organized crime and other major police problems.rkmfiles. www. either a monopoly.CRIMINOLOGISTS Licensure Examination First Day . Mark only one answer for each item by marking the box corresponding to the letter of your choice on the answer sheet provided. A. Wong Mhan Fei Hong Maybe defined as the product resulting from the collecting information concerning an actual and potential situation and condition relating to foreign activities and to foreign or enemy held areas. Mafia 2. Sun Tzu D. Criminal Syndicate C. 3. Intelligence D. Confucius B.net 50 . Police Investigation It is the combination of two or more persons for the purpose of establishing terror or corruption in the city/community or section of. Police Intelligence D. 1 only. Military Intelligence B. A. – 3:30 p. Use pencil no. 4. STRICTLY NO ERASURES ALLOWED.m. Chiang Kai Shek C. MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Criminal World D. Information C. A. and the techniques employed in developing these lines of information. The type of intelligence activity that deals with the defending of the organization against its criminal enemies. Undercover Intelligence in nature with 8. Military Intelligence D. 7. Criminal Syndicate It is the stable business with directed at unwelcome competitors. The social organization of criminals. Strategic Intelligence B. Undercover Intelligence D.rkmfiles. A. having its own social classes from the hobo to the moneyed gangsters or racketeers. Organized Crime violence applied and 6. A. Counter Intelligence C. Organized Crime D. Criminal World C. A form of intelligence which concerns with the various types of confidential information that filter into the possession of the police. Departmental Intelligence D. Criminal World B. Counter Intelligence B. Strategic Intelligence B. Mafia C. None of these www.5. Criminal Syndicate D. size and distribution of the police problems of crime. Undercover Intelligence Intelligence which primarily long-range little or no immediate practical value. A. Departmental Intelligence D. 9. Strategic Intelligence Which a Police Administrator must rely as one of the most indispensable tools of management. Counter Intelligence C. Counter Intelligence B. it is derived from organized information available in the police records division which concerned with the nature. A. Departmental Intellignce C. Strategic Intelligence C. 10. Mafia B. vice and traffic? A.net 51 . Income and expenditure Intelligence www. Tasks C. It is the evaluated and interpreted information concerning an actual or possible enemy or theatre of operations. Interpretation 14. Overt Operation B. including weather and terrain. A.11. economical and most productive use of personnel. Evaluation D. together with the conclusions drawn there from. Covert Operation D. processing of information and disseminations of intelligence. Economic Intelligence D. Overt Operation 13. Operations 15. A. Police Intelligence C.net 52 . the reliability of the source and agency through which the information was derived and its accuracy. Military Intelligence D. which includes determining the pertinence of information. resources and equipment employed and/or utilized in planning the collection of information. If the information or documents are procured openly without regard as to whether the subject of the investigation becomes knowledgeable of the purpose or purposes for which it is being regarded. Strategic Intelligence C. The type of intelligence that is immediate in nature and necessary for more effective police planning. Line Intelligence B. Interpretation B. A. Cardinal Principle of Intelligence B. Evaluation C.rkmfiles. Covert Operation 12. Assets and Liability Intelligence C. Line Intelligence B. Military Intelligence D. Is the proper. A. A. It is a critical appraisal of information as a basis for its subsequent interpretation. 1 yr B. Principles or standards of conduct of an individual. Declassify www. Moral 17. A. 3 yrs C. Reclassify C. Discretion D. A. Ciphers 22. Computer security 20. honesty and freedom from moral delinquencies. Integrity B. control of operations area B. The removal of the security classification from the classified matter. Codes D. A. soundness of moral principles. Cryptogram B. Transmission B. Interim clearance will remain valid for a period of____ from the date of issuance.16.net 53 . control of communications area C. A. Classify B. Integrity 18. 2 yrs D. A. An encrypted message complete with heading of a message written in an intelligence text or language which conveys hidden meaning. Cryptography C. Loyalty C. Refer to the uprightness in character. Moral D. perimeter control 21. A. Character B. Upgrading D. area access control D.rkmfiles. Reputation C. Cryptographic security C. Final security measures undertaken prior to the entry into a communication area. A. Maximum security measures applied to prevent possible decryption of encrypted data on radio communication. Operation security D. 4 yrs 19. his ethical judgment in human relations and his respect to superiors. receiving unit C. Chief of Police B. LAC D. Final measures undertaken prior to the entry into an operating room. perimeter control D. originating unit 25. Regional Director D. head of office B. physical security C. NAC 28. A. control of communications area www. Regional Director D. PBI C.net 54 . operation security 29. Headquarters commandant B. politically. the unauthorized disclosure of which would cause exceptionally grave damage to the nation. A. Secret 26. Members of the Base Platoon C. economically or militarily. Security of the command is the responsibility of: A. Among the following. Top Secret D. A. who has authority to classify Top Secret matters? A. Regional Director C. CBI B. Area access control C. Restricted B. Everybody 24. Provincial Director 27. Sec of DND D. The authority and responsibility for the classification of classified matter rest exclusively with the: A. Investigation of the records and files of agencies in the area and residence of the individual being investigated. cryptographic security D. Confidential C.rkmfiles. Control of operations area B. transmission security B.23. A. Information and material. Applied methods of security for the purpose of superimposing camouflage radio transmission on communication network. control of communications area D. This motivation regarding agent control applies to those whose main desire is for power.net 55 . NAC 33. A.30. perimeter control B. Chief. control of operations area C. who is not authorized to classify Top Secret matter? A. A. ideological belief B. PBI C. area access control 36. Codes D. material gain C. It is a system in which individual letters of a message are represented. Control measures undertaken to prevent entry of unauthorized persons inside the premises of communication facility. A. operations security 35. Consist of LAC supplemented by investigation of the records and files of national agencies. Maximum security measures undertaken to preserve secrecy of classified operations. PNP C. The following are operational security methods except for: A. A. Chief of Police Station www. revenge D.rkmfiles. cryptographic security D. CBI D. proper operational planning 34. communication C. Chief of Staff. Ciphers B. Cryptogram C. transmission security B. Among the following. Cryptography 31. AFP D. cover D. personal prestige 32. A. cut-out device B. LAC B. computer security C. Secretary of National Defense B. Bureau B.A. R. P. Energy D.rkmfiles. Top Secret matter shall not be transmitted through: A. official courier D. members of the PC C. A. What is the A. The largest organic unit with in large department is a __. 8551 C.37. 8 meters 40.A. Animal B. mail 38. A. Human C. Division C. The barrier established to protect the surrounding of an installation. Deputy B. Which is known as the Police Act of 1966 and created the office of the NAPOLCOM? A.net 56 . 9 meters D. Unit 43.A. direct contact to officers concerned B. 12 meters B. 4864 www. In the security industry and in large areas. the standard height of a fence is A.A 6975? A. Structural 39. Police D. 10 meters C. thru DFA Diplomatic Pouch C. jail guards D. Police rank of the Chief Directorial Staff? Dir General Director Chief Superintendent Senior Superintendent 44. all of them 42. The barrier that requires the employment of the guard and guard system is ___ barrier. Human 41. Animal C. Section D. Police C. R. 6975 B. member of the INP B. Which of the following composed the PNP under its creation on R. Structural D. A. Energy B. R.D. 765 D. Officers Basic Course B. on duty B. NAPOLCOM C. The mandatory training course for SPO4 before they can be promoted to the rank of Police Inspector is the __. A fixed point or location to which an officer is assigned such as designated desk or office or spot is called A. Meritorious C. Senior Leadership Course 47. How many deputies do the PNP has? A. Civil Service Commission B. Officer’s Advance Course C. Four 50. special duty C. Beat D. Three D. What is the kind of promotion granted to candidates who meet all the basic qualification for promotion? A. Ordinary 46. Officers Candidate Course D.rkmfiles. PNP promotions are subject to the confirmation of the: A. Department of Interior and Local Government D. Two C. leave of absence D. President of the Philippines 49. PPSC B. The nature of which the police specific routine duty is called A. MNSA or Master’s in National Security in Administration is offered and administered by this institution. A. Post B.net 57 . off duty officer is free from 48. NAPOLCOM C. Route C. Special B.45. National Defense College www. One B. Sector 51. Commission on Appointment D. A. Regular D. PNP in administrative cases where the penalty is dismissal. Department rule B. Plans D. Sir Robert Peel C. The staff directorate in charge of providing the necessary supplies and materials to all PNP units is the A. Duty Manual D. Chairman. 25 years 58. 10 years B. Capt. Konichiwa D. 15 years D. Japanese Military Police during the Japanese occupation in the Philippines were known as A. Logistics Office C. demotion and forced resignation may be appealed before the A. Okinana E. Office of the President C. Among the following. Allen B. Nicholas Piatt 55.net 58 . Comptrollership 54. Henry T. Code of Conduct 53. How many years of satisfactory service must a PNP member renders before he can apply for optional retirement? A. NAPOLCOM www. William Norman B. Lamberto Javallera C. he is known as the father of Modern Policing System. Rafael Crame D. Describes the procedures and defines the duties of officers assigned to specific post or position.rkmfiles. Kamikaze B. 20 years C.52. Col. Regional Appellate Body B. In the history of our police force. A. Gen. A. Capt. Kempetai C. Decision of the Chief. who was the first Chief of the Philippine Constabulary? A. Research Development Office B. National Appellate Board D. Hara Kiri 57. King Henry III D. Code of Ethical Standard C. John Westminster 56. A and C only 60.59. the shift that receives most of the call of the public which are directly related to police function are made on the. A. day shift D. types of crime an d places of crimes in each beat is very important in the implementation of the. Jacobians 65. The Chief magistrate at bow street in London that organized the Bow Street Runners is A. A patrol activity that is directed towards the elimination of hazards in each respective beat is called A. King Richard of London D. Stress B. the soundest of all criminological philosophies is A. patrol and observation B. Medjays B. Ancient police D.rkmfiles. Afternoon shift B. midnight shift C. In the history of patrol. ordinances 64. suspicious persons D. King Charles II of London B. control of crime D. traffic enforcement D. The statistical reports of patrol officers regarding the rate of crime. Patrol hazard would include the following except A. Vigiles C. According to the father of modern policing system. A. none of the above www. emergency call for service 61. selective enforcement C. Henry Fielding of London C. called for service C. none of the above 62. prevention of crime B. the first recorded organized police that utilized dog patrol was the so called _. attending to complaints D. preventive enforcement B. Open manhole C. suppression of crime 63. In the physical environment of the patrol division.net 59 . A. elimination of crime C. crime investigation 67. Boston C. San Francisco D. The government agency that issue license for private and government security guard is __ A. Warrant D. law enforcement C. order maintenance B. It is a document issued by the chief PNP or his duly authorize representative recognizing a person to be qualified to perform his duties as security guard or detective? A.rkmfiles. The responsibility of police that involves peacekeeping on community service role or social services is referred to as A. Mayor’s Office C. License to Operate C. the first daytime and paid police service was organized in A. Which of the following is not a function of a Private Detective? A. prevention of crime D. In the history of patrol US. prevention of crime C. arrest of criminals 68. background investigation B. first line B. The effort of reduction of elimination of desire and opportunity to commit crime is known as A. the PNP SAGSD B. Perimeter fence is what type of perimeter defense? A. None of these 72. third line D.net 60 . second line C. Philadelphia 69. order maintenance D. locating missing persons C. surveillance work 71. the Local Police Office 70. Certificate of incorporation B. controlling traffic flow D. crime prevention B. None of these www.66. Security and Exchange Commission (SEC) D. New York B. Polygraph Examination B. none of these 74. Promotion B. Temporary Appointment D. guard control C. Dismissal from Service 76. Oral Interview 75. Character investigation procedures C.73. Written Examination Procedure B. The aspect of police selection can not be accurately assessed by other steps in the selection process can be measured through the conduct of: A. Verification of academic accomplishment. Appointment Procedures D. In cases of altered marital status in the police selection procedure. Oral Interview D. standardized exam and affiliation with organization of police applicants are information required in the: A. The attempt to determine whether there are parties with in the police candidate’s family who might negatively influence performance of official duties can be best verified by conducting: A. Eligibility Requirements www. To prevent hiatus (break in continuity) in the discharge of official police function by authorizing a person to discharge the same pending the selection of another appointee. Psychological Screening 77. Hangover B. Performance Evaluation B. An additional overhang of barbed wires place on vertical perimeter fences is commonly called __ A. is the main reason of: A.net 61 . Neigborhood Check C. Suspension 78. Written Examination D. careful investigation on matters upon which such alteration should be conducted for purpose of A. Permanent Appointee C. Disqualification D. tower guard D. Dismissal B.rkmfiles. Appointment C. Character Investigation C. Job Performance C. Character Investigation C. Police administrators sometimes do not appreciate importance of planning because A. of positive view about planning the www. of their pattern of career development B. The method by which testing procedures can be best insure job performance predictability is through a process known as: A. Body Pull Ups 83. except: A. Courses Taken B. Test Validation B. Vicinity Check D. visualizing future situations B. Job Analysis D. Demonstrated Leadership C. influential politicians involved in planning D.net 62 . Medical Examination 82. Applicants maybe required climbing over a fence of 5 feet and 6 inches high without the aid of another person. Oral examination B. Body Drag B. Retesting 81. This physical test is called: A. except: A. making estimates concerning them C. Foot Pursuit D. people do not admire them C. loans and savings D. Obstacle Clearance C. identifying issues concerned with the 84. Physical Test is designed to furnish data.79. which will indicate the extent to which an applicant maybe able to perform required responsibilities. Debt. 80. Anti – Social behaviors or Juvenile records.rkmfiles. Planning is a management function following. Physical and mental excellence is an essential quality for individuals who are to be employed as police officers and this can only be determined by administering rigid A. The following are information desired in verifying educational history of a police applicant. making money D. 85. Police Planning is an integral element of good management and A. Business administration B. good police decision-making C. prediction D. performance 86. According to Hudzik and Cordner, planning is A. Visioning B. All of these C. thinking what is right and doing what is best D. thinking about the future and what we need to do now to achieve it 87. In SWOT analysis, “W” means: A. Vulnerabilities B. Threats C. Intelligence D. Win 88. What is the principle which states that subordinate should be under the control of only one superior? A. Principle of Chain of Command B. Principle of unity of command C. Span of Control Principle D. Principle of Objectivity 89. The right to exercise, decide and command by virtue of rank and position is called A. Command and Control B. Authority C. Order D. All of these 90. Which among the following is not included in the 6 Master Plans of the PNP A. Sandigang-Milenyo B. Sandugo C. Banat D. Pagpapala 91. It refers to the production of plans, which determine the schedule of special activity and addresses immediate need which are specific. A. Operational Plan B. Strategic Plan C. Synoptic Plan D. Guideline www.rkmfiles.net 63 92. To properly achieve the administrative planning responsibility within in the unit, the commander shall develop unit plans relating to, except A. Policies or procedure B. Tactics and operations C. Extra-office activities D. Interpersonal problems 93. SOP in police parlance means A. Standard Operation Procedure B. Special Operating Procedure C. Standard Operating procedure D. Special Operation procedure 94. These are procedures intended to be used in all situations of all kinds shall be outlined as a guide to officers and men in the field. A. SOPs B. HQ Procedures C. Field Procedures D. None of these 95. Strictly speaking, one of the following is not a police field operation A. Patrol B. Investigation C. Intelligence D. Traffic Operations 96. SOP Man Hunt Bravo refers to A. Neutralization of wanted persons B. Anti-illegal gambling C. Anti-carnapping plan D. None of the above 97. While covering his beat, PO1 Juan chased upon a pickpocket. What will be his first action? A. Arrest the pickpocket B. Call for a criminal investigation C. Bring the pickpocket to the police department D. Just continue his beat 98. The police must endeavor to establish and impress upon the law abiding citizens and would be criminals alike that the police are always available to respond to any situation at a moment’s notice and he will just around the corner at all times. What does this situation indicate? A. Police Omnipresence B. Police Discretion C. Police Control D. Police Interaction www.rkmfiles.net 64 99. A person, thing or situation which possesses a high potential for criminal attack or for creating a clamor for police service is considered as A. Patrol Hazards B. Patrol Effort C. Police discretion D. None of these 100.What is the new concept, police strategy which integrates the police and community interests into a working relationship so as to produce the desired organizational objectives of peacemaking? A. Preventive patrol B. Community Relation C. Team policing D. Directed Patrol - End of Set Two - www.rkmfiles.net 65 CRIMINOLOGISTS Licensure Examination First Day - 03:30 p.m. – 5:00 p.m. ================================================================= REVIEW QUESTIONS IN CORRECTIONAL ADMINISTRATION SET ONE INSTRUCTION: Select the correct answer for each of the following questions. Mark only one answer for each item by marking the box corresponding to the letter of your choice on the answer sheet provided. STRICTLY NO ERASURES ALLOWED. Use pencil no. 1 only. 1. It is the authority of the President of the Philippines to suspend the execution of a penalty, reduce the sentence and extinguish criminal liability. A. Parole B. Executive clemency C. Pardon D. President’s clemency 2. The B.J.M.P. is under the administration of the: A. Executive Department B. P.N.P. C. D.I.L.G. D. D.O.J 3. There are three (3) casework techniques applied by the parole officer, which is not included? A. The trick and treat techniques B. The executive techniques C. The guidance, counseling and leadership techniques D. The manipulative techniques 4. The basis of this old school of penology is the human freewill. A. Penology School B. Classical School C. Neo-classical D. Positivist 5. This helps the prisoner/detainee in the resolution of his problems A. Meeting B. Working C. Recreation D. Counselling www.rkmfiles.net 66 6. Takes charge of financial matters especially in programming, budgeting, accounting, and other activities related to financial services. It consolidates and prepares financial reports and related statements of subsistence outlays and disbursements in the operational of the jail. A. Budget and finance branch B. General services branch C. Property and supply branch D. Mess services branch 7. Operation conducted by the BJMP wherein a prisoner maybe checked at any time. His beddings, lockers and personal belongings may also be opened at anytime, in his presence, whenever possible. This practice is known as: A. Check and balance B. S.O.P. C. Inventory D. Operation Greyhound 8. Pardon cannot be extended to one of the following instances. A. Murder B. Brigandage C. Rape D. Impeachment 9. It refers to commission of another crime during service of sentence of penalty imposed for another previous offense. A. Recidivism B. Delinquency C. Quasi-recidivism D. City prisoner 10. A person who is detained for the violation ordinance and has not been convicted is a A. Detention Prisoner B. Provincial Prisoner C. Municipal Prisoner D. City Prisoner 11. The A. B. C. D. of law or following are forms of executive clemency, EXCEPT Commutation Reform model Amnesty Pardon www.rkmfiles.net 67 net 68 . after conviction D. during service of sentence 14. A. Deterrence C. B. delayed sentence 15. already convicted B. C. A. D. conviction B. following are the justifications of punishment. a convicted offender. there should be __. EXCEPT Retribution Deterrence Redress Expiration or atonement 16. supervision. serve the sentence 17. good conduct time allowance C.12.rkmfiles. corrections C. Protection B. The idea that punishment will be give the offender lesson by showing to others what would happen to them if they have committed the heinous crime. and rehabilitation of the convicted offender. Punishment Treatment Enjoyment Encarceration 19. C. penalty D. A. It is that branch of the administration of Criminal Justice System charged with the responsibility for the custody. before trial C. This is a procedure which permits a jail prisoner to pursue his normal job during the week and return to the jail to serve his sentence during the weekend or non-working hours. Lethal injection D. probation D. For amnesty to be granted. not yet convicted C. For A. before conviction B. D. punishment 13. probation is a form of __. about to be convicted D. Amnesty B. B. A. The A. Pardon is exercised when the person is __. Stoning 18. www. Which of the following instances Pardon cannot be exercised? A. Excessive number of escapes B. the most common problem of the National Prison is A. Which program plays a unique role in spiritual regeneration of the prisoner? A. Religious programs 22. promote the correction and rehabilitation of an offender by providing him with individualized treatment D. Equality 24. 20. Self-defense B.net 69 .00/day D.H.00/day 23. It is a penalty wherein a convicted person shall not be permitted to enter the place designated in the sentence or within the radius therein specified. P22. None of these B. Application from C. In the Philippines. A. Education programs D.H. which shall not be more than 250 and not less than 25 kilometers from the place designated. prevent the commission of offenses C. None of these C. Disagreement about their mess D. The purpose of the decree on probation shall be to A.R Concurrence of the congress head of the Bureau of Corrections is the Director Secretary of the DND Chief of Executive Prison Inspector the moral and 21. Recommendation from U. Lack of adequate funding www. Overcrowding C. C.rkmfiles. Giving punishment to a person so to serve as an example to others is the theory of A. B. C. P19. The A. provide an opportunity for the reformation of a penitent offender B. All of these 25. Work programs C. Social defense C. Fine B. D. Recommendation from C. D.R. Exemplary D. B.N.A. temporary stay of execution of sentence is called Reprieve Pardon Communication Amnesty 31. medium security prisoners 33. Department of Justice B. super security prisoners C. prepares and cooks the food and serves it to the inmates. Among the parole? following. Medical condition 28. C. Right C. General Services Branch B. Privilege B. A. A. Chief Executive D. Personal C. D. Budget and Finance D. They are not allowed to work outside the institution. B. EXCEPT. This group consists of chronic troublemakers but not as dangerous as the super security prisoners. A. It maintains a record of daily purchases and consumption and submits a daily report to the Warden. pardoning power is vested with the A. A. Certain 27. Parole is a matter of ___.rkmfiles. makes foodstuff purchases. Grace D. Mess services Branch 29. Judiciary C. Mother of offender C. This branch takes charge of the preparation of the daily menu. which has the authority to grant www. maximum security prisoners B. Legal D. A. Legislative 30. Sex of offenders D. The A. Age of offenders B.26. minimum security prisoners D.net 70 . Requirement 32. Mittimus Computing Branch C. A justification of penalty which states that nobody can assume the suffering for a crime committed by others. Justice B. These are the factors considered in diversification. Section 10 paragraph (B) of the Philippines Constitution. Under Article VII. C. In probation system’s philosophy and concept. A person who is sentenced to serve a prison term of over three (3) years is a _________________. Amnesty B. A. change D. C. Detention prisoner C. President Board of Pardons and Parole Director of Prison Court from civil 34. D. A. Bureau of Corrections is under the _____. Chief of the Bureau of Corrections www. exempted C. It is an act of clemency which changes a heavier sentence to a less serious one or a longer term to a shorter term. ___ is an act of grace and the recipient is not entitled to it as a matter of right. B. challenge B. none of these C. The Head of Bureau of Corrections is also the A. A recipient of absolute pardon is ________ liability imposed upon him by the sentence.rkmfiles.net 71 . Commutation C. Department of Social Welfare and Development Department of Justice Department of the Interior and Local Government Department of Health 39. National or Insular prisoner D. Pardon B. Probation D. Reprieve D. D. none of these 37. partially exempted B. A. conditionally exempted D.A. The A. not exempted 35. A. none of these 36. Parole C. aggravate his behavior 38. it is stated that the individual has the ability to ____ and to modify his anti-social behavior with the right kind of help. A. Municipal prisoner B. City prisoner 40. B. Detention Cells 45. Provincial and sub-Provincial Jails B. Rehabilitation and Reformation B. custody B. To stand trial C. Which is a place of confinement for persons awaiting trial or court action and where the convicted offenders serve short sentences or penalty of imprisonment? A. Lock up Jails D.B. Which is a warrant issued by the court bearing its seal and signature of the judge directing the jail or prison authorities to receive the convicted offender for service of sentence or detention? A. Insular Jails 42. The maintenance or care and protection accorded to people who by authority of law are temporarily incarcerated for violation of laws and also those who were sentenced by the court to serve judgment is called – A. Mittimus B. DOJ D.rkmfiles. Sentence Mittimus D. who supervises and controls the said jails? A. caring www. What is the primary purpose of imprisonment? A. Provincial Jails were first established in 1910 under the American Regime. Municipal or City Mayor 43. Detention Warrant 46. Penitentiary D. Punishment D. What is the type of Jails under the Supervision of the BJMP? A.net 72 . safe-keeping C. Director of the Bureau of Corrections C. Superintendent of the Bureau of Corrections D. Provincial Government C. City and Municipal Jails C. At present. Warden 41. Socialization 44. Lock-up C. classification D. Detention Mittimus C. Jail B. BJMP B. Brown C. the prescribed color of prison uniform for maximum security prison is A. earned good conduct time allowance credit B. None of these B. health. earned good behavior while serving prison term D. Orange B. Probation 50. criminal record. Blue 51. fingerprint and photograph B. Safe-keeping 48. it means: A. Medium Security Institution C. record. Which of these refers to the assigning or grouping of offenders according to their sentence.47. the www. All of these 52. Stripe Orange D. The institution for dangerous but prisoners in the Philippines is the A. Minimum Security Institution not incorrigible 49. imprisonment has for its latest objective. Security D. gender. serve minimum sentence C. Custody C. etc. The act of grace from a sovereign power inherent in the state which exempts an individual from the punishment which the law imposes or prescribes for his crime. NBP B. His commitment paper are delivered to record clerk D. age. nationality. Maximum Security Institution D. Aside from protecting the public. all of these 53. When an inmate is given a “shakedown” before admission. Pardon D. extended by the President thru the recommendation of the Board of Parole and Pardon is called A. Amnesty B. He has been examined for contraband C.rkmfiles. He has taken the process of identification.? A.net 73 . An inmate maybe granted parole if he A. Under the prison service manual. Parole C. In jails or prisons. Conviction D. Keeping of records D. Supervision of prisoners B. Administrative Board D. Detention 59. who is charged for the hearing of disciplinary cases in prison? A. all medium security prisoners are confined at the A. Disciplinary Board 56. The form of conditional release that is granted after a prisoner has served a portion of his sentence in a correctional A.A. Parole D. Davao D. Medium Security Prison 55. Occidental Mindoro www. reformation of offenders deterrence segregation of offender confinement of Offenders 54. C. Camp Sampaguita D. The putting of offenders in prison for the purpose of protecting the public and at the same time rehabilitating them by requiring the latter to undergo institutional treatment program is referred to as: A. Palawan B. Under the prison rules. Parole Board C. Imprisonment B. Camp Bukang Liwayway C. which of the following is a function of the Custodial Division? A. Conditional pardon B. a National Penitentiary in the Philippines under the BUCOR is located in ____. In the New Bilibid Prison.net 74 . Probation C. D.rkmfiles. NBP Main Prison B. A. Commutation 57. Zamboanga C. Trial C. Escort of inmates or prisoners C. B. Classification Board B. The Sablayan Penal Colony and Farm. None of the above 58. rkmfiles. Conduct disciplinary hearing 63. Censor offender’s items B. this is credited as the oldest code prescribing savage punishment but in fact ___ is nearly 100 years older. Sumerian Code C. In Babylon. to give warning shots 65. all members of the custodial force shall immediately issued firearms and assigned to critical posts to: A. Justinian Code D. The consequence must be in accordance with law. B. protect the other inmates D. Hammurabic Code B. sound the alarm B. PD 603 B. A. The penalty imposed for offenders must be certain. about 1990 BC. except: A. PD 869 www. call the warden or the director 64. PD 968 D. which grants probation to prisoner sentenced to term in prison of not more than six (6) years? A. 62. Inspect security devices D. In case of mass jailbreak. escape or riot is in progress or has just been perpetuated in the jail. Code of Draco 61. locked prisoners in their respective cells C. Which of these is known as the Adult Probation Law. to shoot the escapees C. when a jailbreak. The following are the duties of the custodial force in prison. This means that: A. Escort inmates C. As a rule. The guilty one must be the one to be punished. No one must escape its effect C. It must be equal for all persons D. the officer at the control centers shall immediately: A.net 75 .60. RA 698 C. no proxy. plug off the escape routes B. Notify the nearest police precinct D. correction 69. D. A. court D. The continuing relationship between probation officer and probationer is known as – A. traditional goal of penology is Retribution Deterrence Incapacitation Rehabilitation future crimes through fear of 70. A. Those who have been once on probation under the Probation Law: A. The she A.66.rkmfiles. may be granted for another probation D. Pre-sentenced Investigation C. Rehabilitation www. B. B. Deterrence C. D. This pillar/component of our criminal justice system has been regarded the weakest pillar due to its failure to eliminate recidivism and habitual offenders. The A. task of changing an offender’s attitude so that he or may not commit another crime in the future. law enforcement B. Rehabilitation 71. A. Affiliation Guidance B. are disqualified to apply for probation C. prosecution C. C. are qualified to apply for probation B. Reintegration B. The attempt to prevent punishment. Deterrence C. Retribution B. Supervision D. should be confined in prison 68. Incapacitation D. C. The idea that re-entry of an offender should be in the mainstream of society rather than the usual abrupt re-entry at the end of a prison sentence. Probation Guidance 67. Retribution Deterrence Incapacitation Rehabilitation 72.net 76 . Incapacitation D. rkmfiles. An attached agency of the Department of Justice which provides a less costly alternative to imprisonment of offenders who are likely to respond to individualized community based treatment programs. Bureau of Corrections C. which started in 1553 and served as training schools for delinquent youths. BJMP B. Bureau of Corrections C. Bureau of Jail Management and Penology B. It direct. Provincial Government D. and Sablayan Prison and Penal Farm are all under this agency. Penal colonies 74. those sentenced to serve a term of imprisonment of more than three (3) years A. Workhouses C.73. Bureau of Corrections C. Bureau of Corrections C. House of Corrections B. BJMP B. An agency under the Department of Justice that is charged with custody and rehabilitation of national offenders. BJMP B. Iwahig Prison and Penal Farm. Common jails D. Department of Justice C. Parole and Probation Administration 76. It exercise supervision and control over provincial jails. that is. city and municipal jails to implement a better system of jail management nationwide A. Parole and Probation Administration www. and detained vagrants. Parole and Probation Administration 77.net 77 . They were known as Bridewells. Provincial Government D. The New Bilibid Prison. A. A. Parole and Probation Administration 75. A. A. provided housing and support for older and poorer persons. the Correctional Institution for Women (CIW). Provincial Government D. Department of Justice 78. BJMP B. supervise and control the administration and operation of all district. Bureau of Corrections D. Provincial Government D. municipal prisoners B. Auburn Prison Model C. Parole D. Prisoners whose sentences are more capital punishment are considered A. insular prisoners than three years to 80.79. Prisoners whose sentences are from one day to six months are A. city prisoners D. A. subject to restrictions and supervision. Work release C. A prison model where incarcerated persons are allowed to work outside the institution that houses them. Halfway houses 84. Probation B. Halfway Houses 83. provincial prisoners C. A prison model which sought penitence (hence the term penitentiaries) through total individual isolation and silence. Halfway houses www. Work Release D. A. A. Work release C. Parole D.net 78 . Pennsylvania Prison Model B. Halfway Houses 82.rkmfiles. Probation B. city prisoners D. provincial prisoners C. A. Auburn Prison Model C. Work Release D. insular prisoners 81. An alternative to incarceration granted after a convicted person served a part of his sentence and is allowed to complete a sentence at large. Pennsylvania Prison Model B. An alternative to incarceration that allows convicted persons to remain at large and under varying degrees of restriction and supervision and certain conditions imposed by the granting court. municipal prisoners B. among the following is a provincial prisoner? A prisoner serving a term below six (6) years A prisoner serving a term of six (6) years and up A prisoner serving a term of six (6) months and one (1) day to three (3) years D. A. A. Community – based D. Pardon C. Institutional B. Jails D. A prisoner serving a term of three (3) years and one (1) day up 89. Parole clemency that 91. Amnesty D. Biological Theory D. Which of the following is an executive requires the concurrence of congress? A. RA 9165 C. RA 8551 B. Prison 87. C.net 79 . Penal colonies C. Traditional www. RA 6975 D. A. Farm house C. All of these 86. A. The law creating the Bureau of Jail Management and Penology (BJMP)is A. Halfway houses B. Probation B. Integrated C. This theory in criminology states that people are totally responsible for their behaviors and the stress is more on the effect of their felonious act than upon the criminal. Psychological Theory C. Jail D. Positivist Theory B.rkmfiles. A correctional institution that has the authority to detain persons awaiting trial or adjudication or confine convicted offenders for a short period of time. RA 4890 88. Who A. A correctional institution that has the authority to detain convicted offenders for longer or extended period of time. Halfway house B. The Parole and Probation Administration administers the _____ Correctional Program.85. Classical Theory 90. including those who are waiting their death sentence. B. Which agency performs the evaluation of prisoner’s fitness and qualifications for the grant of pardon or parole? A. What kind of program employs prisoners in various product or good producing tasks? A. 98. a determinate sentence C. Work regularly to support family D. rehabilitation C. Organized crimes C.92. Stay away from bad associates. The Supreme Court automatically reviews the cases of criminals convicted and meted out the penalty of A. Victimless crimes victims such as 96. Restitution D. Deterrence. Go and play in the gambling den C. incapacitation. Retribution C. What crimes apparently have no complaining gambling. Operational C. Life imprisonment D. Retribution. prostitution and drunkenness? A. None of the above 97. Which of the following should a probationer avoid? A. retribution. A. Industrial D. a capital punishment 93. Make periodic report B. Agricultural B. What is the type of penalty described? A.rkmfiles. Punishment. Complex Crime B. Administrative 95. an indeterminate sentence D. 6 years one month and one day www. Deterrence. punishment treatment D. Pedro was required to provide financial remuneration for the losses incurred by the victim. Blue Collar crimes D. A minimum and maximum amount of time to be served in prison is referred to as _______. confinement retribution. 12 years 6 months and one day B. Death C.net 80 . treatment B. Bond B. a corporal punishment B. Renumeration 94. What correctional institution trial? A.net 81 . chromosomes irregularity and abnormal brain activity. The ________ theory in crime causation focuses on the criminal disorders. A.End of Set One - www. Jail C. Age of Reason 100. Age Reform C. Halfway house D.rkmfiles. Age of Discernment D. None of these B.99. Prison houses accused persons awaiting . Rehabilitation center B. 1727 of the revised Administrative Code as amended is known as A. Parole and Probation Law 2.m. Board of Custody C. ================================================================= REVIEW QUESTIONS IN CORRECTIONAL ADMINISTRATION SET TWO INSTRUCTION: Select the correct answer for each of the following questions.net 82 . tools or implement used to hold back.rkmfiles. Use pencil no. Jail Management Law C. at the rate of PhP8. Correction Law B. Who is tasked with the gathering and collecting of information and other data of every prisoner into a case study to determine the work assignment. Iron leg Lock C. Secondary Imprisonment C. Prison Law D. Diagnostic Board D.CRIMINOLOGISTS Licensure Examination First Day . for failure to pay a fine and if ordered to do so by the judgment is referred to as A. STRICTLY NO ERASURES ALLOWED. the type supervision and degree of custody and restriction under which an offender must live in jail? A. Classification Board B. None of the above 5. 1. Articles 1706 .03:30 p.00 a day subject to certain rules. The meaning of the word oblivion is A. abolish D. Mark only one answer for each item by marking the box corresponding to the letter of your choice on the answer sheet provided. community based treatment www.m. – 5:00 p. Instrument of Restraint B. class of persons C. Metallic chains 3. Preventive Imprisonment D. Subsidiary imprisonment B. Treatment Board 4. keep in check or under control is the A. Handcuffs D. 1 only. The imprisonment a convicted offender may serve. forgetting completely B. The mechanical device or contrivance. banishment D.O 645 D.rkmfiles. The process of determining the needs and requirements of prisoners for assigning them to programs according to their existing resources is called: A. Hammurabic code 10. Code of Draco D. public execution B.net 83 . E. A. Exile B. Twelve Tables B. What law renamed the Bureau of Prison to Bureau of Correction during the Aquino administration in the Philippines? A. During the 16th up to the 18th century. thinkers during the reformatory movement were the major influences of today’s correctional system. Alexander Mochanochie was the one who introduced the __ of correction A. This is an ancient form of punishment called: A. One of the following represents the earliest codification of the Roman law. social degradation C.6.O 104 www. In the history of correction. classification B. Irish System C. E. Marked System D. Banishment D.O 292 C.O 727 B. quarantine C. E. Burgundian Code C. Solitary system B. Public humiliation or public exhibition also mean: A. quality control 7. Public trial 9. a criminal may be sent away from a place carried out by prohibition to coming against a specified territory. diversification D. E. Congregate system 11. Transportation C. which was incorporated into the Justinian Code. public trial 8. He maybe A. The sheriff of Bedsfordshire in 1773 who devoted his life and fortune to prison reform. “ May Halique Estate” B. he escaped from his place of confinement. A.rkmfiles. Muntinlupa Jail 14. the City of Manila exchanges its Muntinlupa property with the Bureau of Prisons originally intended as a site for boys’ training school. Retaliation means: A. hence “blood feuds” was accepted in the early primitive societies. Ms.net 84 . recidivist B. Bantog was convicted for the crime of infanticide. Ms Ines Bantog maybe considered as a A. considered as an escaped prisoner C. Retaliation is the earliest remedy for a wrong act to any one (in the primitive society). provision of sanitation facilities. Manuel Montesimos 15. William Penn D. Tooth for a tooth C. John Howard B. segregation of youth. not liable for evasion of service of sentence D. After his findings on English Prisons. In 1936. Mr. quasi-recidivist C. Cruz was convicted of the crime of murder. Personal Vengeance B. habitual delinguent D. Robert Peel C.12. The concept follows that the victim’s family or tribe against the family or tribe of the offender. “Tandang Sora State” C. Eye for an Eye D. All of these 13. segregation of women. the old Bilibid Prison is now being used as the Manila City Jail. After 10 days from the promulgation of the sentence. liable for evasion of service of sentence B. and abolition of fee system by which jailers obtained money from prisoners. he recommended the following: single cells for sleeping. famous as the : A. mentally retarded person www. All of these 16. Today. New Bilibid Jail D. After serving her sentence she committed again the same crime. Maximum Security Prisoners C. Retribution 21. Ramon. arrested Berto for some legal ground but he failed to file a complaint against the latter with in the prescribed period of filing. no crime committed 18. to afford the society or individual the opportunity of imposing upon the offender suitable punishment as might be enforced. Wulnut Street Jail C. a basketball player. One of the following is an admission involves the frisking of the prisoner. Bridewell Workhouse B. The only early Roman place of confinement which was built under the main sewer of Rome in 64 B. A. Super Maximum Security Prisoners B. all of the above 22. arbitrary detention B.rkmfiles. illegal arrest D. restore the political and civil rights of the accused D. Searching C.net 85 . Briefing/Orientation D. This is one justification of punishment called: A. What crime did Ramon committed? A. Incapacitation C. Offenders should be punished because they deserve it. Atonement B. Burgundian House D.17. do away with the miscarriage of justice B. Deterrence D. Medium Security Prisoners D. none of these 20.C. The purpose of commutation of sentence is to: A. break the rigidity of the law C. The punishment should be provided by the state whose sanction is violated. Minimum Security Prisoners 19. A. illegal Detention C. Identification B. minimum security prisoners procedure which www. The Camp Sampaguita of the national Bilibid Prison houses A. If the warden is taken as the hostage. for all intents and purposes. Upon receipt of the probation officer investigation report. France 27. Benefit of clergy. What is the country. originated probation.net 86 . Benefit of the Clergy D. Most senior D. Antonio Torres D. 60 days B. criminal liabilities D. Who is the Father of Philippine Probation? A. 5 days C. A. soft sentences C. sanctuary. judicial reprieve.23. code of Hammurabi www. Jose Lacson B. England B. the court shall resolve the application for probation not later thanA. 15 days D. Reprieve C. he ceases to exercise authority and the next in command or the __________ officer present shall assume the command. harsh sentences B. Penance 28. 45 days 25. Greece D. Juan Ponce Enrile C. Assistant C. Which of the following does not belong to the common law practices to which the emergence of probation is attributed? A. None of these 26.rkmfiles. and abjuration offered offenders a degree of protection from the enactment of A. A. Veteran B. United States C. Custodian 24. whose early schemes for humanizing the criminal justice under it’s common law. Recognizance B. John Howard 32. Filipino female national prisoners A. Jeremy Bentham B. Walter Crofton D. Samuel Romily D. particularly in Massachusetts. "Security for good behavior. An offender who surrenders from escaping because of calamity immediately 48 hours after the pronouncement of the passing away of calamity shall be granted A. was much like modern bail. Pope Clement XI C. Proper integration of prisoners B. 1/5 reduction of sentence B.net 87 . Iwahig Penal Colony are confined at the 35. Enrico Ferri 33. CIW C. The founder of the Classical School of Criminology and published a short treaties “ On Crimes and Punishments” which contains his reformatory ideas was A. Collateral 30.29.rkmfiles. 2/6 reduction of sentence www. Proper classification of prisoners C. Mental hospital B. The advocate of ultimate prison known as “the Panopticon” was A. Manila City Jail D. In the United States. Who among the following was the builder hospice of San Michelle. Penalizing B. Samuel Romily C. Montesquieu B. John Howard 31. Proper segregation of prisoners D. 2/5 reduction of sentence D. A. ½ reduction of sentence C. Welfare of prisoners 34." also known as good aberrance. Paying in cash D. Jeremy Bentham B. a reformatory for delinquent boys A. Good aberrance C. different practices were being developed. Diversification means A. Cesare Beccaria D. Cesare Lombroso C. Board of pardon and parole D. Old Bilibid Prison B.36. law enforcer for 39. Elmira reformatory D.rkmfiles. What is the name of the prison institution situated in Zamboanga. police officer B. Remedial law B. Auburn prison C. probationer officer C. treat of their nature and provides for their punishment A. Parole and probation administration 41. San Ramon Prison & Penal Farm D. Sablayan Prsions and Penal Farm C. Iwahig Penal 37. Walnut Street Jail C. Post sentence investigation report must be submitted by the probation officer to the court within A. A detention jail in Philadelphia but it was converted into state prison and became the first American penitentiary. 30 days C.net 88 . Alcatraz prison www. One who investigates for the court a referral probation or supervises a probationer or both A. 20 days B. intelligence officer D. Auburn Prison B. A. Blanco of the Spanish Royal Army? A. A branch or division of law which defines crimes. named after Capt. Pennsylvania Prison D. The system of prison were the confinement of the prisoners in single cells at night and congregate work in stop during the day A. 60 days D. Bride Well 42. Criminal law C. Indeterminate sentence law C. 90 days 40. Civil law D. determinate sentence law B. Political law 38. Parole in the Philippine is governed by the A. Pennsylvania prison B. 43. Under the rules, the chairman of the classification and disciplinary board for jails should be A. Warden B. Assistant warden C. Custodial officer D. Security officer board 44. A special group of prisoners composed of incorrigible, intractable and dangerous persons who are so difficult to manage inside prisons. A. Medium Security prisoners B. Maximum security prisoners C. Super maximum security prisoners D. Minimum Security Prisoners 45. One of the following is considered as the corner stone reformation n which includes all the life experiences which shape a persons attitudes and behaviors A. Recreational program B. Religious program C. Educational program D. Work program in 46. It involves supervision of prisoners to insure punctual and orderly movement from the dormitories, place of work, hospital and churches in accordance with the daily schedules A. Control B. Custody C. Discipline D. Inspection 47. It is a special unit in prison where by newly arrived prisoners will be admitted for diagnostic examination, observation A. Reception and Diagnostic Center B. Medium Security Compound C. Maximum Security Compound D. Minimum Security Compound 48. Under the jail rules, the following are authorized disciplinary measures imposable to inmate offender except A. Reprimand B. Cancellation of visiting privilege C. Cancellation of food allowance D. Extra fatigue duty www.rkmfiles.net 89 49. The principle of an “eye for an eye” “tooth for a tooth” doctrine is common among ancient laws, specifically the A. Code of Draco B. Hammurabic Code C. Summerian Code D. Code of Solomon 50. “Lex Tallionis” means A. Punishment B. Law of retaliation C. Retribution D. Suffering 51. These were abandoned or unusable transport ships use to confine criminals during the early period of treating criminal offenders. A. Hulks B. Gaols C. Transportation D. Galleys 52. He wrote his book “State of the Prisons” and he was also considered as the great prison reformer. A. John Howard B. John Augustus C. William Penn D. Domets of France 53. The first house of correction in London England was the A. Bridewell Workhouse B. Walnut Street Jail C. Mamertine Prison D. Panopticon 54. ___ - known as the “Rock” build in San Francisco Bay A. Walnut prison B. Alcatraz prison C. New York prison D. Red Rock penitentiary 55. Anything that is contrary to prison regulations are considered A. Firearms B. Contrabands C. Greyhounds D. Personal belongings or jail rules and www.rkmfiles.net 90 56. It is the suffering that is inflicted by the state for the transgression of a law for the purpose of controlling criminals. A. Prevention B. Revenge C. Penalty D. All of the above 57. Parole and Probation Administration is under the direction of the A. Department of Finance B. Department of Justice C. Department of Interior and Local Government D. Bureau of Jail Management and Penology 58. What is nature in hearing the violation of a probation? A. Formal B. Summary C. Due process D. None of the above 59. Which is considered the forerunner of parole? A. Mark system B. Solitary system C. Benefits of a clergy D. Congregate system 60. The following are considered as discretionary conditions of probation except A. Drinking intoxicated liquor to excess B. Abstain from visiting house of ill repute C. Meet his family responsibilities D. Cooperate with the program of probation 61. The first convict in the Philippines, sentenced to death by means of Lethal injection was A. Baby Ama B. Asiong Salonga C. Leo Echagaray D. Gregorio S. Mendoza 62. In the 13th C, a criminal could avoid ________ by claiming refugee in a church for a period of 40 days at the end of which time he has compelled to leave the realm by a road or path assigned to him. A. Penalty B. punishment C. trial D. conviction www.rkmfiles.net 91 63. Long, low, narrow, single decked ships propelled by sails, usually rowed by criminals, a type of ship used for transportation of criminals in the 16th century. This referred to as the: A. Gaols B. Galleys C. Hulks D. Stocks 64. The Classical School of penology maintains the “doctrine of psychological hedonism” or __________. That the individual calculates pleasures and pains in advance of action and regulates his conduct by the result of his calculations. A. denied individual responsibility B. free will C. pleasures and avoiding pain D. natural phenomenon 65. History has shown that there are three main legal systems in the world, which have been extended to and adopted by all countries aside from those that produced them. Among the three, it was the __________ that has the most lasting and most pervading influence. A. Mohammedan Law B. Anglo-American Law C. Roman Law D. Hammurabic Code 66. Hanging is for death penalty, maiming is for A. Social degradation B. Exile C. Physical torture D. Slavery 67. Who is the Director of the English Prison who opened the Borstal Institution for young offenders? The Borstal Institution is considered as the best reform institution for young offenders today. A. Evelyn Brise B. Manuel Montesimos C. Zebulon Brockway D. Walter Crofton 68. The __________ is considered forerunner of modern penology because it has all the elements in a modern system. A. Bridewell Workhouse B. Elmira Reformatory C. Wulnut Street Jail D. Borstal Institution for Boys www.rkmfiles.net 92 69. Capital punishment refers to: A. Life imprisonment B. Death Penalty C. Reclusion Perpetua D. All of these 70. One of the following is not an administrative function exercised by the executive branch of the government. A. Probation B. Pardon C. Parole D. Amnesty 71. Pardon granted by the Chief Executive A. extinguishes criminal liability of offender B. does not extinguish civil liability of offender C. must be given before the prosecution of the offense D. all of the above 72. The enactment of Republic Act no. 6975 created the BJMP. It operates as a line bureau under the Department of Interior and Local Government (DILG). This statement is: A. partially true B. partially false C. true D. false 73. The Jail Bureau shall be headed by a chief with a rank of Director General, and assisted by Deputy Chief with the Rank of Chief Superintendent. This statement is: A. partially true B. partially false C. true D. false 74. The group having the responsibility of providing a system of sound custody, security and control of inmates and their movements and also responsible to enforce prison or jail discipline is the: A. Security group for jails B. Escort Platoon C. Control Center groups D. Warden 75. A unit of the prison or a section of the RDC where the prisoner is given thorough physical examination including blood test, x-rays, vaccinations and immunity is the: A. Quarantine cell B. NBP C. Death row D. Control Area www.rkmfiles.net 93 special group of offenders D. Pardon is administered by the court 79. Prisoners who are nearly to leave the institution. C. The background of the prisoner before he was committed to prison – social. Placing a person to custodial coercion is to place him in physical jeopardy.rkmfiles. No pardon. Humanitarian aspect C. organizational or religious affiliation of the prisoner should be disregarded. awaiting transfer. This principle is based on the ____ of community based treatment programs. A. Cristobal vs. The power of the chief Executive to grant pardon is limited to the following. thus drastically narrowing his access to source of personal satisfaction and reducing his self-esteem. Managerial aspect D.net 94 . Legal aspect 77. In determining the fitness of a prisoner for release on conditional pardon. Financial capacity of the prisoner. unassignable prisoners to undergo prison programs B. The case where the Supreme Court laid down the doctrine that the absolute pardon removes all that is left of the consequences of conviction. B. A. economic. except: A. and those who are chronically ill with mental disabilities are considered: A. parole or suspension of sentence for the violation of any election law may be granted without favorable recommendation of the Commission of Elections. the following points shall be considered as guides. Restorative aspect B. those in disciplinary status. Pardon is exercised only after conviction D. C. and that it is absolute in so far it restores the pardonee to full civil and political rights. The political. People vs. Aquino C. Fernandez vs. Due regard should be given the attitude of the people in the community from which he was sentenced. minimum security prisoners www. except: A. Galit D. Imprisonment is not always advisable. 80. None of these 78. B.76. Pardon can not be extended to cases of impeachment. all of these C. D. Labrador B. USA? It is located approximately 30 miles (48 km) north of New York City on the banks of the Hudson River which the Auburn Prison system was applied. Quarantine Unit D. with enforced silence at all times. A. partially C. Garotine D. New York. Galley room 86. What is the place in some prisons.net 95 . This true false 82. Silver Mine Farm 84. the warden or the Officer of the Day may administer the necessary restraints and reports the action taken to the Disciplinary Board. a general rule D. Cell 45 85.rkmfiles. The statement is: A. A. Parole is not grants it as statement is: A. where the violation necessitate immediate action. not applicable to prisoners 83. false claimed as a right but the Board of Parole a privilege to a qualified prisoner. used to separate unruly. Reception Unit C. Sing Sing Prison C. true D.81. Albany system B. an SOP B. A ___. also sometimes used as punishment. Which of the following is a maximum security prison in Ossining. an emergency plan C. The Auburn system is also known as A. also called a 'block' or 'isolation cell'. Irish system C. Death row C. Wulnut Street Jail D. partially B. In extreme cases. Alcatraz prison B. New York System www. The Auburn system is a penal method of the 19th century in which persons worked during the day in groups and were kept in solitary confinement at night. or vulnerable prisoners from the general population. Execution room B. Every violation of jail/prison discipline shall be dealt with accordingly. or a section in prisons where criminals are placed awaiting execution? A. dangerous. Segregation Unit B. False C. None of these 87. Partially true D. meaning that the moral worth of an action is determined by its outcome—the ends justify the means. Zebulon Brockway B. Determinism D. to allow an observer to observe B. Penology www.rkmfiles. The Panopticon is a type of prison building designed by English philosopher Jeremy Bentham in 1785. “Opticon’ means: A. The prison is located in Chemung County. with out the prisoner C. A. Bedford Hills Correctional Facility for Women is a prison in Bedford Hills. Who among the following was given the title “father of Prison Reform” in the United States? A. its contribution to happiness or pleasure as summed among all persons. is a maximum security prison located in New York in the USA. “the hill” C. Westchester County. It is the idea that the moral worth of an action is solely determined by its contribution to overall utility. It is thus a form of consequentialism. “the school” B. known otherwise as ___. It is the only women's maximum security prison in New York State. New York. To walk in military manner 89. Positivism C.D. It is the largest women's prison in New York State and has hosted many infamous prisoners.net 96 . that is. Elmira Correctional Facility. John Howard D. Robert Peel C. New York in the City of Elmira. Alexander Mocanochie 91. USA. “the rock” D. Hedonism B. This statement is: A. “the dungeon” 90. True B. The concept of the design was derived from the word meaning of “pan” and “opticon”. Partially false 88. A. avoid watching D. www. walk with faith B. live with integrity C. Gallows C. In the Philippines.net 97 . 1976 C. Sir John Watson 96. and founder of the Borstal system? A. used for execution by hanging? A. Zebulon Brockway B. 1972 D. In the history of capital punishment. Execution by electrocution (referred to as the Electric Chair) is an execution method originating in the United States in which the person being put to death is strapped to a specially built wooden chair and electrocuted through electrodes placed on the body. Alexander Mocanochie C. Galley B. out of prison 93. Which of the following drug is injected to stops the heart thus causing death by cardiac arrest? A. has historical roots in the practice of judicial reprieve. typically wooden. 1918 Who was the British prison administrator and reformer.rkmfiles. The concept of probation. what do they call this frame. Pancuronium C. Double blade 94. Evelyn Ruggles Brise D. A. its first use was in : A. Bicarbonate 95. Hulk D. 1924 B. Potassium chloride D. Sodium thiopental B.92. from the Latin word “probatio” which means ___. testing period D. The main application for this procedure is capital punishment. Lethal injection refers to the practice of injecting a person with a fatal dose of drugs for the explicit purpose of causing the death of the subject. the Corpus Juris Civilis B.rkmfiles.97. None of these 100. important codifications of laws were developed in the ancient Roman Empire. This is referred to as the A. Parole D. Pardon C. Execution B. lex taliones 98. A. Amnesty .End of Set Two - www. This law refers to A. with the compilations of the Lex Duodecim Tabularum. Ting Code D. with the compilation of the A. Cruelty syndrome C. Chang Code 99. if they so choose. and then until there is a convenient time for __. Opponents of capital punishment claim that a prisoner's isolation and uncertainty over their fate constitute a form of mental cruelty and those especially long-time death row inmates are liable to become mentally ill. the Twelve Tables C.net 98 . they will remain on death row while following an appeals procedure. After individuals are found guilty of an offense and sentenced to execution. Besides religious laws such as the Torah. if they are not already. the Hammurabic code D. Tang Code B. Execution syndrome D. death row phenomenon B. The first permanent system of codified laws could be found in China. Wong Code C. standard document C. Calligraphy C. disputed document B. 4. simulated or copied forgery B. 5.8:00 p. disguised document B. ================================================================= REVIEW QUESTIONS IN CRIMINALISTICS SET ONE INSTRUCTION: Select the correct answer for each of the following questions. – 11:30 p. standard document D. MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. questioned document C. requested document Specimens of hand writing or of typescript which is of known origin. Mark only one answer for each item by marking the box corresponding to the letter of your choice on the answer sheet provided.CRIMINOLOGISTS Licensure Examination Second Day . Gothic 2. simple forgery C. Drafting B.m. requested document D. carbon tracing Condensed and compact set of authentic specimen which is adequate and proper. Exemplars D. STRICTLY NO ERASURES ALLOWED. 3. its contents or the circumstances or the stories of its production.m. www. should contain a cross section of the material from known sources. A. Use pencil no. A.net 99 . Letters B. questioned document The art of beautiful writing is known as A. A.rkmfiles. Documents A document which is being questioned because of its origin. Art appreciation D. traced forgery D. Samples C. 1 only. There is freehand invitation and is considered as the most skilful class of forgery A. Core C. The process of recording fingerprint through the use of fingerprint ink. Bifurcation 7. A. Delta D. Fingerprinting C. A. a ridge count across a looping bridge 11. The fingerprint method of identification.net 100 . Warrant D. radial loop The forking or dividing of one line to two or more branches. Delta B. A. ulnar loop B. Fingerprinting C. Ridge B. A. A. Delta D. The following are considerations used for the identification of a loop except one: A. Dactyloscopy D. Printing press www. 10.rkmfiles. Printing press 12. A. Subpoena C. 9. Island C. Island C. Any written instrument by which a right or obligation is established. Certificate B. Divergence B. Document A type of fingerprint pattern in which the slope or downward flow of the innermost sufficient recurve is towards the thumb of radius bone of the hand of origin. 8. Pathology B. Bifurcation The point on a ridge at or in front of and nearest the center of the divergence of the type lines. a sufficient recurve D. accidental whorl D. Pathology B. tented arch C. Dactyloscopy D.6. The impressions left by the patterns of ridges and depressions on various surfaces. deltas and ridges. fingerprints 17. pattern area D. Nine 19. latent fingerprints 16. Two lines that run parallel or nearly parallel. Eighteen B. A. A. The minimum identical characteristics to justify the identity between two points.rkmfiles. Accidental C. Twelve D. Whorl 18. visible fingerprints C. diverge and surround the pattern area.13. finger rolls C. Ridges B. accidental www. Arch B. kiss marks B. Fingerprints left on various surfaces at the crime scene which are not clearly visible. thumb marks D. A. Delta C.net 101 . plane impressions B. type line B. rolled impressions D. A part of the whorl or loop in which appear the cores. A. furrow 15. double loop C. Fifteen C. A. whorl B. Type line D. Which among the following is not considered as a basic fingerprint pattern? A. central pocket loop D. A. bifurcation C. Bifurcation 14. Loop D. A fingerprint pattern in which the ridges form a sequence of spirals around core axes. A. 30-60 minutes B. Lens that is characterized by a thicker center and thinner sides. shutter D.rkmfiles. radial loop C.net 102 . The normal developing time of a paper or film. A. holder of sensitised material B. 1. long lens C. A lens with a focal length of less than the diagonal of its negative material. Law Enforcement Administration B. A person allowed who gives his/her opinion or conclusion on a given scientific evidence is considered A. 20-30 minutes C. ulnar loop D. tented arch 21. interrogator B. A. positive lens 24. wide angle lens www. 5-10 minutes D. view finder 26. This part of a camera is used to allow light to enter through the lens for a predetermined time interval. A. prosecutor D. Loop B. convex lens C. judge 22. A. Criminalistics 23. telephoto lens B. concave lens B. The application of scientific knowledge and techniques in the detection of crime and apprehension of criminals.20. A. and terminate on the same side where the ridge has entered. Criminal Psychology D. view finder C.2 minutes 25. normal lens D. A fingerprint pattern which one or more ridges enter on either side of the impression by a recurve. Forensic Administration C. expert witness C. negative lens D. Hydroquinone 28. view finder B. Cardiosphygmograph B. A component of the polygraph instrument which records the breathing of the subject. the term “ examination” means a detection of www. Kymograph 30. A. Pneumograph C. Kymograph 31. Galvanograph D. Pneumograph C. A. A. C. Pneumograph C. Potassium Bromide B. D. Questions must all be in the form of accusations 33. lens C.net 103 . The following are specific rules to be followed in the formulation of the questions in a polygraph test except one. Kymograph 32. A component of the polygraph instrument which is a motor that drives or pulls the chart paper under the recording pen simultaneously at the rate of 6 or 12 inches per minute. Questions must be as short as possible. Cardiosphygmograph B. Cardiosphygmograph B. Questions must be clear and phrased in a language the subject can easily understand. In “ polygraph examination”. Questions must be answerable by yes or no. shutter D. Galvanograph D. B. light tight box 29.rkmfiles. A part of a camera used in focusing the light from the subject A. Sodium Carbonate C. Chemical used as an accelerator in a developer solution. Galvanograph D. Sodium Sulfite D.27. A component of the polygraph instrument which records the blood pressure and the pulse rate of the subject. A. A. A. The study of the effect of the impact of a projectile on the target. The pattern or curved path of the bullet in flight. The part of the mechanism of a firearm that withdraws the shell or cartridge from the chamber. Velocity D. positive response B. Range C. Forgery Emotion the mind deception 34. Trigger 40. The unstable rotating motion of the bullet is called A. It refers to an emotional response to a specific danger. Forensic Ballistics 38. A. Prepare subject for polygraph test B. Striker D. normal response D. Ejector C. Trajectory B. Fear B.rkmfiles. Make the subject calm D. Stimuli C. A. Velocity D. Extractor B. Obtain confession C. Terminal Ballistics B. which appears to go beyond a person’s defensive power.net 104 . Internal Ballistics C. The deviation from normal tracing of the subject in the relevant question. reaction 37. A. specific response C. Yaw C. Yaw B. D. The primary purpose of pre-test interview. Explain the polygraph test procedures 36. Response D. A. Reaction 35. C. A. Gyroscopic action 39. B. External Ballistics D.A. Trajectory www. This refers to the deflection of the bullet from its normal path after striking a resistant surface. Yaw C. Mean diameter C.41. A. Gyproscopic action 45. He is known as the Father of Ballistics. Trajectory B. Illegal Document C. Charles Waite C. A type of primer with two vents or flash holes. Baterry Primer D. A document in which some issues have been raised or is under scrutiny. A. Questioned Document 48. Velocity D. It is the measurement of the bore diameter from land to land. Boxer Primer 43. rifling D. Ricochet D. Berdan Primer C. A. Calvin Goddard 47. Rifling 46. Albert Osborne D. Gauge D. Forged Document D. Presence of Natural Variation www. It refers to the unstable rotating motion of the bullet. This refers to the helical grooves cut in the interior surface of the bore. swaging B. ogive C. Calibre B. Void Document B. A. The following are characteristics of A. Misfire B. A. Bordan primer B. Hans Gross B.rkmfiles. A.net forgery except one: 105 . breaching 44. A. Mushroom C. Key hole shot 42. forged document C. private document 53. Opinion B. by which some disposition of agreement is proved. Document C. Handwriting 52. natural variation B. official document C. or of competent public official. An instrument that can be legally used in comparison with a questioned document. Patchwork Appearance 49. simulated document B. relative standards B. A. A kind of document which is executed by a private person without the intervention of a notary public. Standards which are prepared upon the request of the investigator and for the purpose of comparison with the questioned document. A. Any stroke which goes back over another writing stroke. A. A document which contains some changes either as an addition or deletion. its origin is known and can be proven. The process of making out what is illegible or what has been effaced. Show bad quality of ink lines D. Comparison B. Decipherment 55. compared document 54. rhythm C. Signature D. A. inserted document www. A. Multiple Pen Lifts C.rkmfiles. Obliteration D. A. standard document D. The name of a person written by him/her in a document as a sign of acknowledgement. requested standards 50. Collation C. retracing D. shading 51. commercial document B. collected standards C. public document D.B. A.net 106 . extended standards D. public document D. body fluid D. urine 61. magnetic erasure D.B. defense lawyer B. Posology C. chemical erasure 57. Fingerprint B. Shading B. Blood D. Body fluids 62. razor blade or picking instrument. A. A. obliterated document 56. Explosives C. The detection and identification of poisons. A kind of erasure by using a rubber eraser. Chemistry 60. characterized by widening of the ink stroke. Who qualifies a forensic chemist as expert? A. pen lift C. A kind of document executed by a person in authority and by private parties but notarised by competent officials. blood B.rkmfiles. private document B. altered document C. A. sharp knife. electronic erasure C. Toxicology D.net 107 . A. commercial document C. A forensic chemist is tasked to examine the chemical nature and composition of the following except one: A. disputed document D. saliva C. pen pressure 58. The specimen that is preferably used in the determination of abused drugs in the body. mechanical erasure B. A. It is the periodic increase in pressure. judge www. official document 59. pen emphasis D. Bacteriology B. Bend B.net 108 . criminology D. Firearm C. A. area of responsibility 65. Prisoners D. area of operation D. Saliva test B.rkmfiles. The application of chemical principles and processes in the examination of evidence. Methamphetamine hydrochloride is commonly known as A. All of the following are accurate tests for the presence of alcohol in the human body except one: A. corpus delicti 66. Typewriter B. A. Morphine D. crime scene B. nicotine 67. Heroin D. Forensic Medicine www. Evidence B.C. Demerol B. “shabu” 64. Folded C. a tip of the hair is examined to determine if it was A. the chemist himself/herself 63. Coke B. Number restoration is necessary in determining whether there is tampering of serial number in A. Bank notes 68. police line C. A. A. In forensic examination. Cut 69. LSD C. prosecutor D. An area surrounding the place where the crime occurred. Caffeine C. The body of the crime. Fecal test D. Harger Breath Test C. Blood test 70. body of the victim C. Stretched D. One of the following is a derivative of the opium poppy. Pharmacology B.rkmfiles. Gel 76. Forensic Evidence C. The test used to determine the presence of blood in stained material. Sticking 73. The study and identification of body fluids. Stimulants 77. A. Poisons which produce stupor and less feeling. cartridge case C. Volatile poisons may be isolated by means of this process. Cementing C. Distillation D. Dialysis B. Serology www. Forensic Chemistry 71. A. Microscopic Test D. A. Narcotics B. Depressants D. Phenolphtalein Test 75. The process in reproducing physical evidence by plaster moulds. It is the major component of a glass. Lime B. The test used to determine the presence of semen particularly in stained clothing.net 109 . Criminalistics D. Barberio’s Test C. Moulage D. Irritants C. A supercooled liquid which possess high viscosity and rigidity. Dilution C. Silica D. gel D. Casting B. Florence Test B.B. A. Soda C. Barberio’s Test C. A. A. Takayama Test D. dry ice B. Extraction 72. Ultra-Violet Test 74. Florence Test B. glass 78. A. A. C. Posology D. Immunology 79. The test to determine whether blood is of human origin or not. A. Blood typing B. Precipitin Test C. Confirmatory Test D. Preliminary Test 80. The circulating tissue of the body. A. Blood B. Cells C. Muscles D. Liver 81. The complete, continuous, persistent cessation of respiration, circulation and almost all brain function of an organism. A. Apparent death B. Molecular death C. Cellular Death D. Somatic death 82. The approximate Testing. A. minimum of B. minimum of C. minimum of D. minimum of time for the completion of one case for DNA eight weeks six weeks four weeks two weeks 83. DNA stands for A. Deonatural Acid B. Deoxyribonucleic Acid C. Denaturalized Acid D. Deoxy Nucleic Acid 84. The Geneticist from Great Britain who pioneered DNE testing and fingerprinting. A. Alec Jeffries B. Lowell C. Van Berkom C. William Reynolds D. Henry Van Dyke 85. The cause of death of a person who immediately died because of lack of oxygen for around 3 to five minutes. A. Stroke B. Asphyxia www.rkmfiles.net 110 C. Stupor D. Exhaustion 86. The most serious burn involving skin, nerves, muscles and bones, causing death due to loss of fluids and electrolytes in the body and massive infection. A. First Degree Burn B. Second Degree Burn C. Third Degree Burn D. Sunburn 87. A discoloration of the body after death when the blood tends to pool in the blood vessels of the most dependent portions of the body and starts 20 to 30 minutes after death and is completed by 12 hours. A. livor mortis B. primary flaccidity C. maceration D. rigor mortis 88. A wound which if inflicted in the body so serious that it will endanger one’s life. A. mortal wound B. trauma C. coup injury D. superficial wound 89. A wound produced by a blunt instrument such as club and stone. A. incised wound B. hack wound C. lacerated wound D. punctured wound 90. A displacement of the articular surface of the bone without external wounds. A. Hematoma B. Fracture C. Sprain D. Dislocation 91. A condition of exposure to cold temperature of certain parts of the body which produces mechanical disruption of cell structure characterized by cold stiffening and diminished body. A. immersion foot www.rkmfiles.net 111 B. trench foot C. frostbite D. gangrene 92. A condition of women who have had one or more sexual experience but not had conceived a child. A. virgo-intacts B. demi-virginity C. moral virginity D. physical virginity 93. Fixed discoloration of the blood clothed inside the blood vessels or has diffused to different parts of the body. A. hypostatic lividity B. diffusion lividity C. hyper lividity D. rigor mortis 94. Things used by a person in the commission of a crime, or objects left in a crime scene which are the subjects of criminalistics. A. testimonial evidence B. hearsay evidence C. circumstantial evidence D. physical evidence 95. The science dealing with the motion of a projectile and the conditions governing that motion. A. Ballistics B. Forensic Ballistics C. Terminal Ballistics D. External Ballistics 96. The application of medical knowledge in the solution of crimes. A. Forensic Science B. Forensic Chemistry C. Forensic Ballistics D. Forensic Medicine 97. The science or art of obtaining images in scientific materials by the action of electro magnetic radiation rays. A. Polygraphy B. Dactyloscopy C. Photography D. Chemistry 98. Instrument used in the measurement of temperature. A. Endometer B. Barometer C. Thermometer D. ananometer www.rkmfiles.net 112 99. The scientific detection of deception. A. Polygraphy B. Dactyloscopy C. Toxycology D. Chemistry 100.The test conducted to determine the presence of gunpowder residue in the hands of a suspect. A. diphenylamine test B. ultra violet test C. paraffin test D. Simon’s Test - End of Set One - CRIMINOLOGISTS Licensure Examination Second Day - 8:00 p.m. – 11:30 p.m. ================================================================= REVIEW QUESTIONS IN www.rkmfiles.net 113 CRIMINALISTICS SET TWO INSTRUCTION: Select the correct answer for each of the following questions. Mark only one answer for each item by marking the box corresponding to the letter of your choice on the answer sheet provided. STRICTLY NO ERASURES ALLOWED. Use pencil no. 1 only. MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The following are types of medical evidence, except: A. Photographic evidence B. Experimental evidence C. Testimonial evidence D. Autoptic evidence The art of identification by comparison of fingerprint is called: A. Dactylography B. All of the these C. Dactyloscopy D. Palmistry Some scientific methods of identification are the following, except: A. Fingerprinting B. Handwriting C. Dental identification D. Identification by close friends and relatives The greater the number of points of similarities and dissimilarities of two persons compared, the greater the probability for the conclusion t be correct is found in the A. Law of Municipality of Evidence in Identification B. All of the these C. Identification by Comparison and Exclusion D. Law of Super Imposition In the strict sense of the word, Forensic Medicine means A. application of medicine to legal cases B. application of medical science to elucidate legal problems C. knowledge of law in relation to practice of medicine D. none of the above E. all of the above 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. The different test to determine peripheral circulation are the following, except A. Magnus test B. Diaphanous test www.rkmfiles.net 114 Regulated Death 8. Cellular Death 11.rkmfiles. if not. Judges of the regional trial court C. Hypnotism C. which one is not? A. Director PNP D. State of Suspended Animation C. I card’s test D. The following officials of the Philippine Government are authorized to conduct death investigation. State of Suspended Animation C. to the government C. To find out the truth is an essential requirement for the administration of Justice. Of the following kinds of death. Civil property of a person is transmitted to the heirs. SOCO team The following statements are important in death determination. 3-6 minutes B. The death of the partner is one of the causes of dissolution of partnership agreement D. In molecular or cellular death. Winslow’s test 7. Which of the following is the commonly used method of deception detection? A. Use of drugs D.net 115 . Confession 12. 3-6 hours www. Lie detection method B. Public Prosecutor B. 9. Molecular Death D. which one is relevant to Organ Transportation? A. The criminal liability of a person is extinguished by death The following are kinds of death. except A. Cellular or Molecular Death D. Civil personality of a natural person is extinguished by death B.C. death of individual cells is with in A. 10. Which is not valid? A. Somatic or Clinical Death B. Somatic or clinical Death B. All of the above E. Suggillation 17. Diffusion D. Clot with varied colors D. Articles and materials found in the crime scene: A. Associative evidence C. Evidence D. Tracing evidence 19. 20-30 minutes D. Gravitational pressure D. 20-30 hours 13. Autolysis C. Clot is homogenous in construction so it cannot be stripped into layers C. A. Post-mortem lividity has the following mechanisms: A. except: A.C. Hanging raises a presumption of suicide C. Hanging is asphyxia due to the constriction of the neck as a result of suspension in which the weight of the body pulls upon the ligature. None of the above 15. performed by a trained Physician. Circumscribed extravation of blood or subcutaneous tissue or underneath the mucous membrane. Biophsis C. Physicians 18. to determine the cause of death: A. Hypostasis B. Strangulation is usually homicidal D.net 116 . What differentiates it from strangulation by a ligature therefore is: A. Diffusion C. Autopsy B. Which one is not valid? A. Surface of the blood vessels are raw after the clots are removed 16. Distinctions between ante-mortem from post-mortem clot are the following. The factor of suspension B. Physical evidence B. Dissection D. Ante-mortem clot is firm in consistency B. All of the above 14. Post-mortem lividity maybe due to any of the following. Hypostatic pressure B. Comprehensive study of dead body. Contusion B.rkmfiles. Petechia www. Determination of individuality of a person or thing: A. Dental examination B. except: A. Sexual intercourse C. Whorl 25. Polygraph B. Lie detector D. Shrapnel wound www. Perception C. A. which has the greatest value in scientific examination/identification? A. None of these 22. Stab wound C. Arches B. Pictures Parle 21. Fingerprinting C. Types of fingerprint patters. Photography D. Identification D.C. Prostitution D. Description B. Magnus test C. Virginity B. An open wound produced by a sharp-pointed instrument and is characterized by a small opening of the wound. Rigor mortis D. the truth respecting the matter of fact. Among the following. Sexual deviation 26. preference and completing need for sexual gratification by any means except sexual intercourse which results to bodily excitement A. One is a condition that can approximate the time of death. A. The means sanctioned by the law. All of them 20.rkmfiles. Cadaver B. A. Loop D. Gunshot wound B.net 117 . Evidence C. Abrasion D. All of these 24. It is any unusual pattern of sexual behavior including habitual. of ascertaining the judicial power/proceeding. Ordinary C. All of these 23. Bromet 30. and sulfur. It is the type of burn due to gamma rays and which is difficult to remedy: A. Chemical burn D. Black Powder C. less serious physical injury 28. The portion of the gun which is held or shouldered is called A. Electric burn C. A. Barrel C. Radiation burn 29. The metal tube through which the bullet is fired is called A. Chinese Powder B. Punctured wound 27. Slight physical injury B. Primer 32. Thermal burn B. Serious physical injury D. The inside of the barrel is generally termed as A. Mutilation C. In a gun. Gas tube B. Handle D. charcoal.net 118 . the portion of the "action" that holds the cartridge ready for firing is called A. Bore B.rkmfiles. Gray Powder D. A physical injury wherein the offended victim is incapacitated for work or requires medical assistance for 10 days or more but not more than 30 days. Buckle B. End joint 33. Double-action D. Chamber C. All of these 31. Buttstock C. The old form of gunpowder invented over a thousand years ago and consisting of nitrate. Baretta D. Bore B. Rifling D.D. A. Trigger www. Barrel C. a modern and complete fingerprint file has been established for the Philippine commonwealth. People vs Medina B. None of these 36. A metal rod or plate that strikes the cartridge primer to detonate the powder. Constabulary was A. Hanger 37. Holder C. In 1937. A. Amado Delos Santos C. A device that fits over the muzzle of the barrel to muffle the sound of a gunshot. Generoso Reyes B. Mr. What is the intermediate and the thickest layer of the hair and is composed of elongated. Medulla www. A. Under the management of Lt. Hammer D. the first Filipino fingerprint technician employed by the Phil. Mr. People vs. Also referred to as a "clip". Clipper B. Calixto Solis D. Revolver 35. People vs Amador D. Pin or pinhead D. Darby during the American occupation in the Philippines. This is a device for storing cartridges in a repeating firearm for loading into the chamber. The first leading judicial decision in the Philippine jurisprudence on the science of fingerprinting was the case of A. Trigger guard C.net 119 . Most work by baffling the escape of gases. Mr. Buffer B. People vs Pineda C. None of these 38.rkmfiles. Spring B. Magazine D. spindle-shaped fibrils which cohere? They contain pigment granules in varying proportion depending on the type of hair. A.34. Rosas 39. Silencer C. A. Chemical Coatings D. Aristotle Curt C. Films B. None of these 42. Benjamin Jones 41. Core D.net 120 . Interrogative questions 44. A medium that divert or absorb light. Opaque object B. Emulsions C. gelatinous. Visible light D. Dr.rkmfiles. and a butting at right angle. Sufficient Recurve C. Cortex C. Guilt Complex Test 45. Straight arrow www. What test is given if a subject of interrogation is not yet informed of the details of the offense for which he is being interrogated by the investigation. the space between shoulders of a loop. or by other persons or from other sources like the print media? A. In police photography studies. Peak of Tension test B. In the practice of polygraphy. Control test C. Relevant questions C. In fingerprinting. Dr. Control questions D. but does not allow lights to pass though. Dr. free of any appendage. Complete curve B. IQ Test D. Irrelevant questions B. what do you call questions unrelated to the matter under investigation but are of similar nature although less serious as compared to those relevant questions under investigation? A.B. light-sensitive coatings on film that react chemically to capture the color and shadings of a scene? A. A. Cuticle 40. Dr. Prisms 43. William Harrison D. they absorb most of the light while reflecting some of it is called A. Who was the noted British Examiner of questioned documents said that an intelligent police investigator can detect almost 75% of all forgeries by careful inspection of a document with simple magnifiers and measuring tools? A. what are called the thin. Arthur Stoll B. Convection C. net 121 . What is the oldest ink material known? A. None of these B. In the study of questioned documents. Furrows D. Envelope C. what do you call the quality of paper that does not allow light to pass through or which prevents dark objects from being seen through the paper? A. www. A. Bifurcation 47.rkmfiles. Chinese Ink C. Core 46. both natural and artificial. The branch of geology that deals with the systematic classification and identification of rocks. Skid marks D. Opacity B. Envelope C. Also includes study of dust. Cryptography B. ceramics and other such materials. White Ink 50. Watermarks C. The term use to refer to a single recurving ridge enclosing one or more rods or bars of a fingerprint. safe insulation. rock forming minerals and soil. Invisibility 49. dirt. Bifurcation 48. None of these B. A. Ball point pen ink B. Casting D. These are depressions or canals between the ridges of a fingerprint which maybe compared with the low area in a tire tread. Aniline Ink D. Matalisky 51. Furrows D. It is the art of extracting and working on metals by the application of chemical and physical knowledge. Metallurgy C.D. A. the presence of reddish brown smoke indicates A. attraction B. This refers to A. Nitrocellulose B. The speed varies in different explosive but in some it is as high as 7000 yards in a second. All of these 53. Charge weight to bullet weight ratio C.A. Nitric acid D. The angle of reflection depends upon the angle of the light striking the material. Gas www. Barrel Pressure C. Sulfuric acid C. Power to speed ratio B. angle of incidence B. Firing pin stroke ratio D. All of these 57. In ballistics. Energy B. The bending of light around an object gives rise to the phenomenon called A. angle of light D. C. Gunpowder D.net 122 . angle of biometry C. None of these 56. Under the law of reflection. light fingerprint 54. diffraction C. Chamber Pressure B. Chemical rearrangement of molecules into gas instead of solids to cause the high explosives to exert full power of shock. which is referred to as the A. what is the pressure generated within the chamber erroneously called breeched pressure? A. Petrography Serology Anthropology Ecology 52. The ratio of the weight of the powder charge to the weight of the projectile is called A. B.rkmfiles. none of these 55. In a fire. D. light curve D. In Hoogly. What occurs when a cartridge fails to explode on time or delayed in firing? A. A. Wong Cho D. Johannes Purkinje B. Wayne Kate D. William Herschel B.rkmfiles.C. Hang fire C.net 123 . Sir Francis Galton 61. The notorious gangster and a police character. A. Alphose Bertillon 62. India. In China. Charles Darwin D. Tiang Hin 60. Alphonse Bertillon 63. Gilbert Thompson C.C. Who has given the fame title as “Father of Dactyloscopy”? A. Francis Galton C. Gilbert Thompson D. A.” That established the individuality of classifying fingerprint patterns. Knocking Power B. Francis Galton B. district of Bengal. he used fingerprints to prevent fraudulent collection of army pay account and for identification of other documents. None of these 59. A. Hua Chi B. who attempted to erase his fingerprints by burning them with acid but as time went by the ridges were again restored to their “natural” feature. Leonard Keeler C. Detonation D. A noted British anthropologist who began observation which led to the publication in 1882 of his book “Fingerprints. He was known as the Father of Chiroscopy. It was valued for purposes of identification since time immemorial as found on a Chinese clay seal made not later than the 3rd Century B. Gun powder 58. Recoil D. fingerprint is called ___. Mah Whang C. John Feilding www. Johanes Curie C. should contain a cross section of the material from a known source for questioned document examination. Are condensed and compact set of authentic specimens which. A single ridge which splits into two ridges forming a “Y” shape formation or structure is commonly known as A. identity. Plain whorl B. John Larson 68. Billy the Kid 64. Podoscopy D. Poroscopy C. Astrology 65. Dr. Semen B. Dr. Ulnar loop 67.rkmfiles. if adequate and proper. Loop D.net 124 . Accidental loop D. and are contested either in whole or part with respect to its authenticity. Delta 66. Questioned document B. Falsified document D. Father of Criminalistics.B. Blood 69. Basis products B. John Reid D. It is a fingerprint pattern which there are two deltas and in which at least one ridge makes a turn through one complete circuit. Urine C. Dr. A. Diverging ridges B. One in which the facts appearing therein may not be true. A. John Dellinger D. Illegal document C. Dr. Central pocket loop whorl C. Standards www. Hans Gross B. A. Disputed facts 70. or origin. Which evidence offers least resistance to decomposition? A. Chiroscopy B. A. Symbolized by letter W in the fingerprint classification. What is the science of palm print identification? A. Hair D. Cesare Lombroso C. Bifurcating ridges C. Ultraviolet radiation is invisible and occurs in the wave lengths just below the visible blue-violet end of the spectrum (rainbow). When a document is issued and notarized by a notary public or competent public official with solemnities required by law. Reasoning 75. it is called A. Private Document 73. Signatures 71. Microscopic examination B. he may not only express it but demonstrates the reasons for arriving at his conclusion. Commercial document D. Exemplar C. Basis B. Handwriting D. Prism B. a phenomenon known as A. Testimony C. Reproduced 72. Forged D. Documents are subjected to this type of examination to determine the presence of erasures. A term used by some document examiners and attorneys to characterize known material. Xerox copies D. In legal language. Obscuration C. Opinion D. the document is viewed with the source of illumination behind it and the light passing through the paper. Official document B. it refers to the document examiner's conclusion.rkmfiles. Transmitted light examination 76. None of these 74. What is known as the blotting out or shearing over the writing to make the original invisible to as an addition? A. A. A. matching of serrations and some other types of alterations. A.net 125 . Ultra violet examination C. In Court. In this kind of document examination. Obliteration B. These visible rays react on some substances so that visible light is reflected. Public document C. Photographic examination D.C. Remarks B. Fluorescence www. Freehand forged signature www. The act of setting two or more items side by side to weigh their identifying qualities. what is the relation of parts of the whole of writing or line of individual letters in words to the baseline? A. and with a particular reason and purpose for recording his name. None of these 82. the movement of the pen toward the writer is called A. Letter forms 79. Analysis C.rkmfiles. in a particular physical and mental condition. Downstroke B. Alignment C. combination of certain forms of visible mental and muscular habits acquired by long. continued painstaking effort. Any property or mark which distinguishes and in document examination commonly called to as the identifying details si called A. All of these 78. being used as whole. It is the result of a very complicated series of facts. Backstroke C. Collation B. Sidestroke D. it refers not only a visual but also the mental act in which the element of one item are related to the counterparts of the other. Radiation 77. Standard B. while the signer was at particular age. A. Attribute D. Money Bills C.C. In the study handwriting. Proportion B. Characteristics C. It is a signature. under particular conditions. Comparison D. In document examination.” A. Lining D. Some defined it as “visible speech. Infrared D. using particular implements. Typewriting B. Recording 81. A. Handwriting D. signed at a particular time and place. Form 80.net 126 . Fraudulent Signature B. This valuable instrument is specially designed to permit the firearms examiner to determine the similarity and dissimilarity between two fired bullets or two fired shells. or imitate. Consist of a wooden box. A. Henry Ball 86. John Loud C. it means to make a copy of. Chalk 85. Ink C. Coal D. A fluid or viscous marking material used for writing or printing. Pen B. Counterfeiting B. A. who was this insurance agent in New York who patented the first practical fountain pen containing its own ink reservoir A. Caliper 87. Slug collection box D.rkmfiles. Compound microscope C. with a hinged to cover and with one end open. by simultaneously observing their magnified image in a single microscopic field. Helixometer C. Fake money bills 84.net 127 . Literally. Forgery D. Pinometer B. Thermometer D. A. Guided Signature D. with the intent to deceive or defraud. A. This long box is filled with ordinary cotton and separated into sections by cardboard petitions use in ballistics. Firing point box B. circulating or uttering false coins and banknotes. Peter Reynolds D. In 1884.C. Falsification C. Photographic microscope 88. What do you calle the type of instrument used in measuring pitch of rifling firearms? A. All of these www. Magnetic field device B. Bullet recovery box C. Bullet comparison microscope D. Lewis Waterman B. to make a spurious semblance of. It is the crime of making. Evidential Signature 83. as money or stamps. 12 “x”12”x 96. X-Ray Films C. Chromatic aberration D. Colored Films 90. which has the fastest speed? A. Among the following speed of film.rkmfiles. Panchromatic film B. the cross section of the refracted beam at successively greater distances from the lens is an ellipse that collapses first into a horizontal line. partly true D. and another film ISO. and later becomes a vertical line A. ISO – 400 D. Bended light C. This statement is A. X-Ray Films D.net 128 .89. Which film is suitable for general use in the preparation of black and white photography because it produces the most natural recording of colors? A. Chromatic aberration is the failure of different colored light rays to focus after passing through a lens. Astigmatism B. ISO – 25 B. spreads out again. Pragmatic rays 94. ISO – 1000 and up 93. Bended light www.200. This means that the 200 films are twice as fast (twice more sensitive to light) than the ISO-100 film. A. ISO – 100 to ISO – 200 C. Color Films 91. What are the films that are sensitive to radiation? A. Chrome Films B. Astigmatism B. Photographic films maybe classified according to their forms and types. true B. false C. focusing of light of different colors at different points resulting in a blurred image. Chrome Films C. B&W Films D. One film maybe rated ISO – 100. What is the defect in which the light coming from an offaxis object point is spread along the direction of the optic axis? If the object is a vertical line. partly false 92. What makes a bullet spin? Without spin. that is.C. A. Chromatic aberration D. Benzidine test D. Barberio’s test www. a bullet would not stay pointed forward in flight. Depth of field is the range in front of and behind a sharply focused subject in which details also look sharp in the final photographic image. Ridge tracing C. In fingerprinting. Gunpowder C.rkmfiles. Camera trick D. Aperture D. Focus B. The spinning motion increases the accuracy of a bullet. or streaking in the final image? A.net 129 . Rifling D. how sharply it can be reproduced without blurring. Cardiograph C. Serum test C. Ridge counting B. Shell 98. A. What component of the polygraph machine records the changes in the breathing of the subject? A. Kymograph 99. Shutter speed C. Plasma count B.For many years the most commonly used preliminary test for blood is the A. Galvanograph D. Bore B. Pragmatic rays 95. Pneumograph B. A. In photography. Lens 97. Delta tracing D. but would tumble over and over. Depth of field C. Focus B. All of these 100. Aperture 96. it refers to the process of counting the intervening ridges that touch or cross an imaginary line drawn between the core and the delta. what determines how effectively a moving object can be stopped. – 2:30 p.net 130 .12:30 p.rkmfiles..End of Set Two - CRIMINOLOGISTS Licensure Examination Second Day .m. INVESTIGATION & PREVENTION SET ONE www.m. ================================================================= REVIEW QUESTIONS IN CRIME DETECTION. A. pony tail D. A. An extra judicial confession obtained from a suspect is admissible in a court of law if it was made in the presence of a counsel of his own choice and must be in A. pony tail D. Interview C. A. loose tail B. close tail 2. casing C. Undercover work A type of surveillance in which extreme precautions and actions are taken in not losing the subject. Tailing B. 1 only. MULTIPLE CHOICE 1.INSTRUCTION: Select the correct answer for each of the following questions. Espionage D. front of a judge Fiscals and Prosecutors are under the control and supervision of the A. www. Department of Justice The questioning of a person in a formal and systematic way and is most often used to question criminal suspects to determine their probable guilt or innocence. the presence of a police investigator C. National Bureau of Investigation B.net 131 . Inquiry B.rkmfiles. A. the presence of a fiscal B. Casing C. Supreme Court D. close tail A type of shadowing employed when a general impression of the subject’s habits and associates is required. Use pencil no. 3. 6. 4. Department of the Interior and Local Government C. loose tail B. casing C. 5. interrogation A form of investigation in which the investigator assume a different and unofficial identity. STRICTLY NO ERASURES ALLOWED. polygraph examination D. writing D. Mark only one answer for each item by marking the box corresponding to the letter of your choice on the answer sheet provided. A special qualification for an undercover agent. A.rkmfiles.net 132 . or effects or a building. 9. excellent looks D. case preparation B. The discreet observation of places. order maintenance C. Direct evidence D. A. Instigation B. public service 11. close observation B. Corroborative evidence B. Real evidence 8. persons and vehicles for the purpose of obtaining information concerning the identities or activities of suspects. Stake out D. Inducement C. The process of bringing together in a logical manner all evidence collected during the investigation and present it to the prosecutor. tailing www. A. A.7. A. A. Raid C. or premises with the purpose of discovering contrabands or personal properties connected in a crime. Entrapment 12. excellent eyesight C. A. Espionage An examination of an individual’s person. Seizure A kind of evidence that tends to prove additional evidence of a different character to the same point. Ways and means are resorted for the purpose of trapping and capturing the law breaker during the execution of a criminal act. 10. houses. Casing B. Investigation D. Buy bust operation D. excellent memory 13. crime prevention D. Tailing C. A surveillance activity for the purpose of waiting the anticipated arrival of a suspect or observing his actions from a fixed location. Circumstantial evidence C. Search B. excellent built B. espionage C. Interview B. Criminal procedure D. weekdays 16. A. tape measures 17. police patrol B. A. Interrogation www. day time B. As a general rule. Surveillance C. To obtain admission and confession of guilt is the primary purpose of A.rkmfiles. electronic devices for wiretapping or bugging.net 133 . and presentation of evidence regarding their alleged crimes. continuation of the preliminary initial investigation custodial investigation secondary investigation follow-up investigation 19. a warrant of arrest can be served at A. Investigation D. D. preservation. A police activity directed toward the identification and apprehension of alleged criminals and the accumulation. or attempts to be present when they are committed. Criminal investigation 18. The questioning of a person by law enforcement officers after that person has been taken into custody. countermeasures C. B. and stakeouts. A. police intelligence C.D. pro-active measures D. surveillance 14. A. custodial investigation D. through the use of the undercover agents. C. interrogation C. preventive measures B. An extension or investigation. preliminary investigation B. cross examination 15. any day and at any time of the day or night D. Measures through which police seek to detect crimes. night time C. Admission B.rkmfiles. probable cause C. A search warrant shall be valid for _____ days from its date. order maintenance C. Confession C. police intelligence 24. Accusation 25. it shall be void. Such facts and circumstances that would lead a reasonably discreet and prudent man to believe that an offense has been committed and that the object sought in connection with the offense are in the place sought to be searched. A. Thereafter. res ipsa loquitur 21. Confession C. Accusation www.net 134 . A. A. 15 C. and that the person named in his report committed the crime. Admission B. A. A.20. prima facie evidence B. Deposition D. sufficiency of evidence C. prejudicial question D. Deposition D. parens patriae 23. 30 D. criminal investigation D. It means that a specific crime was committed at a specified time. 45 22. A statement of the suspect directly acknowledging his guilt. A. corpus delicti B. 10 B. stare decisis D. Police seek to prevent crime by being present in places where crimes might be committed and by alerting citizens to refrain from practices that make them or their property vulnerable. opportunity denial B. It may be a direct acknowledgement of the truth of the guilty fact as charge or of some essential part of the commission of the criminal act itself. date and place. evidence tracking www. Opportunity D. The simplest type of interview which concerns with the gathering of information regarding the personal circumstances of a person who is the subject of investigation. pre-game interview 28. conclusion D. tape measure 31. whereby their application varies in proportion on their necessity to establish the guilt of the accused in a criminal case. Interview B. conviction ‘ C. A. A.26.rkmfiles. Interrogation D. A. instrumentation B. Instrumentation 32. modus operandi 29. The simple questioning of a person who is cooperating in the investigation. chain of command B. information. Confession C. It may be a self-incriminatory statement by the subject falling short of an acknowledgement of guilt. observation. The three tools in criminal investigation. parens patriae C. A. chain of custody C. pencil. It involves a number of persons who might have handled evidence between the time of the commission of the alleged offense and the disposition of the case.net 135 . stare decisis D. background interview B. A. Intent B. A. personal interview C. intimate interview D. Admission B. Motive C. It is one which induces the criminal to act and need not be shown in order to obtain conviction. inquiry. Inquiry C. Accusation 27. Inducement 30. interrogation. apprehension. detection. It means method of operation. should be kept to a minimum. A. Deposition D. corpus delicti B. magnifying glass. strip method B. www.D. financial assistance D. A. A. A. testimonial evidence 35. sympathetic approach B. zone method A kind of gathering information whereby a subject is being followed. wheel method C. strip method B. emotional appeal C. . 38. tracing evidence D. The following are different techniques in interrogation except one: A. physical evidence B. assist in the prosecution of the criminal. wheel method C. spiral method D. strip method B. blood etc. Examples are fingerprints. tracing evidence 33. spiral method D. A. 37. zone method The area to be searched is divided into quadrants and each searcher is assigned to one quadrant. associative evidence C. physical evidence B. tracing evidence D. The searchers gather at the center and proceed outward along radii or spokes. friendliness This may be applicable to a crime scene which is approximately circular or oval. impressions. spiral method D. Articles and materials which are found in connection with an investigation and which help in establishing the identity of the perpetrator or the circumstances under which the crime was committed or which in general. wheel method C. zone method The searchers follow each other in the path of a crime scene beginning in the outside and circling around a central point. A. factual evidence 34. 39.net 136 36.rkmfiles. A kind of evidence which may link the suspect to the crime scene or offense. documentary evidence C. Ignition C. D. 42. . C. Intensity B. 43. 45. B. Bugging B. A. inquiry An objective of criminal investigation. A. Interrogation B. 40. since the www. rumor mongering C. Supporting D. Dubbing C. 44. but who knows about the crime or individuals involved in it. Tapping The questioning of persons not suspected of being involved in a crime. Mimicking D.net 137 41. identify criminals C. Informant The use of an equipment or tool to listen and record discreetly conversations of other people. A. when. Witness B. Convoy Caravan Tailing Surveillance Another term for tailing. prevent crimes A term used to describe a transition which occur in the development of a fire. Backing C.rkmfiles. A. Shadowing A person who gives necessary information to the investigator. determine the motive B. Expert witness C. its detailed process of a solid is very complicated. A. Hostile witness D. 46. Flash over D. rehabilitate criminals D. most of all the combustible surfaces within a room are heated above their ignition temperature at the same time. for example. A.A. Starter A term of the start of the combustion. Impersonating B. interview D. He may give the information openly and even offer to be a witness or he may inform the investigator surreptitiously and request to remain anonymous. Most malicious fires are set by individuals secretly. Convection C. The main product of the combustion of carbon. or set by psychotic fire setter. Starter 47. A. A. Ignition B. pack up and flee B. it is either set for revenge or self aggrandizing. run for your life C. arson for profit C. Flash over D. The primary course of action in case of a fire. Radiation D. call an ambulance D. 50. preserve the fire/crime scene D. interview witnesses B. A. Conduction The greatest concern of the firemen at the fire/crime scene is to A. carbon monoxide www. view the site of the crime C. Intensity B. raise the alarm 52. solitary fire setter 51. The term describes the transfer of heat through a gas or vacuum in a similar way to that of light. fire starter D. A. or for sexual gratification. Conduction The transfer of heat within a solid material from hotter to cooler parts. A. It is not poisonous but is an asphyxiant which lowers the proportion of oxygen available for breathing. phot opportunity in the fire/crime scene 48. carbon oxide B. group fire setter B. Convection C. Radiation D. Ignition C.rkmfiles. 49. A.proportion of different flammable vapours varies from one material to another and contact with oxygen must take place before combustion can begin. Ignition B.net 138 . 53. class B C. magnesium. A. class D The following are components of fire except one: A.rkmfiles. A. Fuel C. especially when the air supply to the fire is restricted. Heat It is observed in structural fires and can be an indicator of the fire travel and point of origin. and other carbonaceous materials. paper. . carbon monoxide C. etc…. carbon paper D. V pattern D. A. Extinguishment of this fire is by quenching and cooling. it is used to predict how long it will resist the effect of a fire before it fails. potassium. Spalling www. 55. zinc. D. class D A type of fire which results from burning of wood. A.C. carbon dioxide The fire resisting property of structural elements and the behavior of a building material in a fire. A. Crazing B. carbon paper carbon dioxide A normal product of combustion. irregular lines in glass and wood. Oxygen D. class A B. and is poisonous. class C D. fire resistance B.net 139 54. 58. Charring B. 59. carbon oxide B. class B C. Alligatoring C. 57. A. Pour pattern A pattern or network of fine. class A B. class C D. 56. textiles. fire strength A type of fire that is the result of the combustion of certain metals in finely divided forms. Gas B. fire duration C. fire proof D. A. C. Light bulbs Charring A tool employed by an arsonist to delay the start of the fire and allow him to establish an alibi. 63. timing device D. of a fuel and oxidizer blasting agent blasting cap gun powder explosive primer 66. 65. Sniffer C. 60. pyrophobia It is known as the “Fire Code of the Philippines. Any material or mixture consisting used to set off explosives. Stopper This catalytic combustion device is the most common means employed to detect flammable vapors.C. A. delaying tactic C. and the most common examples are gasoline. Accelerants B. stopper It can be readily identified by their distinctive odors.net 140 . pyrotechnic disease C. pyromania D. A. A. 64. Trailers C. stopper The irresistible impulse or compulsion to start a fire and experience gratification and satisfaction from it. turpentine and kerosene. PD 1185 61. PD 1017 C. 62. Combustible B. Accelerants B.” A. PD 1108 B. A. B.rkmfiles. Corrosive www. D. These are description of materials or compounds that are easily set on fire except one: A. fire starter syndrome B. Accelerant B. D. PD 1081 D. timing device D. timing device D. Flammable Inflammable Any material having a flash point at or above 37. Radiation D. arson C. 70. characterized by the heat and light combustion. flammable liquid C. inflammable liquid D. combustible liquid B.net 141 73. corrosive liquid Any liquid that causes fire when in contact with organic matter. of flammable liquid and gasses. damper C.rkmfiles. an example a liquid or a gas where fluid at one temperature and density moves under the influence of gravity at different temperatures. 69. inflammable liquid D. 72.80 degree Celsius or 100 degree Fahrenheit. ember The active principle of burning. D. combustible liquid B. A mass movement in a fluid. A. duct system D. A. Conduction B. 71. . flammable liquid C. Class B C. class A B. explosion B. A. fire A type of fire. A. corrosive liquid An extremely hot luminous bridge formed by the passage of an electric current across the space between two conductors. Combustion The temperature at which a liquid is transformed or converted to vapor. 67. melting point www.C. A. A. burning point B. A. combustion D. Class D 68. Convection C. Class C D. electrical arc B. A. C. Traffic B.rkmfiles. RA 6425 D. 79. 74. Gravity Any motor vehicle accident that results in no death.net 142 80. RA 4136 An occurrence in a sequence of events. start action D. D. Fatal B. . Friction C. RA 7160 B. A. B. A. The force that tends to pull all objects to the center of the earth. A. which usually produces unintended injury.C. D. but only injuries to one or more persons. investigation area by measurements traffic report spot report triangulation accident 76. A. A. Trip D. Chronic C. RA 8551 C. point C. 77. Flight C. freezing point boiling point to escape from a of no return of no escape of evasive position The first action taken by a traffic unit collision course or to avoid hazard. traffic incidents www. point B. The “Traffic and Land Transportation Code of the Philippines” A. Non fatal D. Journey A method of locating a spot in the from two or more reference points. The movement of vehicles. final 75. Injurious 78. and pedestrians in a road or highway. Inertia B. death or property damage. Energy D. Tranquillisers B. Hallucinogens C.B. A. A. They are called psyhedelics. traffic accidents traffic hazards traffic events Any motor vehicle accident occurring on a traffic way. Evaluation The “Comprehensive Dangerous Drugs Act of 2002.” A. disengagement D. traffic violation The first accidental touching of an object collision course or otherwise avoid a hazard. B. dullness of the mind with delusions.net 143 . RA 6195 Drugs that produce perceptual alteration. A. www. 87. non motor vehicle traffic accident B. thought disruption and ego distortion. RA 1017 D. D. melancholy or Stimulants Narcotics Depressants Hallucinogens 82. traffic citation B. primary contact B. Education C. varying emotional change. traffic warrant D. 85. Enforcement D. C. D. A. 84. 81. traffic request C. C. initial contact The following are the three E’s of Traffic Management and Operation except one: A. Stimulants D. Depressants Drugs which produce insensibility. RA 9870 B. 86. motor vehicle traffic accident An order wherein a violator is commanded to appear in court. 83. non motor vehicle non-traffic accident C. but without detaining him. Engineering B. motor vehicle non-traffic accident D. secondary contact C. A. stupor. RA 9165 C.rkmfiles. Gynaecology B. the indulgence of which leads to depravity. . Heroin B. Bureau of Foods and Drugs C. Food and Drug Administration A harmful conduct or habit. Codeine B. Sex Trade The A. wickedness and corruption of the mind and body. Codeine C. A. cannabis sativa L Papaver somniforum deoxyribonucleic acid methamphetamine HCl 89. Codeine C. It is chemically known as methamphetamine hydro chloride. B. Heroin B. Opium D. 92. Vice B. A. Caffeine C. White Slavery D. The practice or profession of having sexual intercourse for money or profit. None of these A derivative of opium which is used a cough reliever. Morphine D. Shabu 91.88. A. 90. Abuse C. Methamphetamine An inter department agency that enforce and carry out the law against illegal drugs. Addiction D. 94. A. 93. Virtue The most common form of stimulant. C. Dangerous Drug Board D. Philippine Drug Enforcement Agency B.rkmfiles. Prostitution C. D. scientific name of Indian hemp plant.net 144 95. The original components of heroin and morphine. A. Morphine D. A. www. D.m. A. the initial step for obtaining information to determine the origin and cause of fire.rkmfiles. drug pushing D. interview witnesses D. 99. in most cases.A. Codeine Heroin Morphine Caffeine Any part of the plant of the papaver somniferum. B. laboratory examination of evidence C. prescription drugs Any chemical substance that by virtue of its chemical nature alters the structure and functioning of living organism. drug net consciousness C. including the seeds. marijuana C. regulated drugs D. Poison C. opium poppy B. A. 100. drug habituation B. prohibited drugs C. C. Alcohol B. caffeine components D. CRIMINOLOGISTS Licensure Examination Second Day . A.m. A.net 145 . Evidence collection B. ================================================================= www. interrogation of suspects . – 2:30 p. drug dependence Commercially produced drugs that can be legally sold or dispensed only by a physician’s order. codeine Another term for psychological drug addiction. Drug D. Vice It is. A. 96. 98.End of Set One - 97. illegal drugs B.12:30 p. Affidavit B. Ohio? A. all of the above The stage of criminal interview purposely done to clarify information already gathered or to gather additional facts about the case is the: A. concluding interview D. 1 only. MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. None of these The testimony of witnesses reduced in writing while under oath is generally called A. initial interview B. Deposition Human sources of information who voluntarily provide facts to the detectives are generally known as A. Admission B. Eclectics Doctrine E.rkmfiles.net 146 . Respondents Proof beyond reasonable doubt is the weight and sufficiency of evidence needed to convict the defendant in A. Use pencil no. Informants D. The prosecutor is the proper authority to subscribe in the A. Fruit of the Poisonous Tree Doctrine C.REVIEW QUESTIONS IN CRIME DETECTION. Suspects C. Mark only one answer for each item by marking the box corresponding to the letter of your choice on the answer sheet provided. civil cases C. preliminary interview 2. 5. Information D. STRICTLY NO ERASURES ALLOWED. What legal doctrine was established in the case Mapp vs. Complaint www. Informers B. Declaration C. follow-up interview C. Archipelagic Doctrine B. criminal cases D. INVESTIGATION & PREVENTION SET TWO INSTRUCTION: Select the correct answer for each of the following questions. Miranda Doctrine D. 4. 3. administrative cases B. 6. preserving the site of the crime in the same physical condition as it was left by the perpetrator 13. removal of evidence which may prone important to the case D. detained or under custodial investigation shall at all times be assisted by A. A self-incriminatory statement not tantamount to acknowledgement of criminal guilt is called A. Witnesses As established by our Supreme Court through the case People vs. show the warrant of arrest B. Information 7. Instrumentation D. Galit. Planned and coordinated legal search conducted to locate physical evidences at the locus criminis refers to A. give the Miranda warning 8. Intelligence C. Admission C. engaging in the search for traces left by the search for traces left by the criminal C. Covert operation 11. Complaint B.C. Joint affidavit D. Any person arrested. identify yourself as a law enforcer D. Prosecutor B. counsel D. police officer C. inform the nature and cause of accusation C. complaint Remuneration gain is the main motive of A. interrogating the witnesses B. Crime scene search B. Confession D. Which of the following is NOT among the rules to be observed in questioning a suspect? www. 10. Criminals C. the first step in arresting an offender is A. Informants B.rkmfiles. 9. Informers D. Deposition 12.net 147 . The fundamentals responsibility of the officer in charge of protecting the crime scene is A. A standard arrow to designate the north must be indicating to facilitate proper orientation. circumstantial evidence B. toxicologist D. artificial evidence D. which deal with the identity and location of the offender and provides evidence of his guilt through criminal proceedings. window 18. interrogation C. This is known as A. The number of person who handle the evidence from the scene of the crime and between the times of the commission of the crime up to the final disposition of the case. One of the following is an art.rkmfiles. individualization and evaluation of physical science by application of natural sciences in matters of law and science. Declaration against interest C. chemist B. Dying declaration D. www. A.A. B. A police officer testifying to the fact that he observed the defendant assault the victim is presenting to the court ____ evidence. The declaration made under a consciousness of an impending death is called A. wind whirl C. instrumentation D. identification. all of these 16. A. direct evidence C. map B. C. criminal investigation 15. information B. criminalistics 19. D. simplicity of the question one question at a time accepted applied answer saving faces 14. A. The profession and scientific discipline directed to the recognition. real evidence 17.net 148 . compass direction D. scientist C. Res gestae B. 20 days D.rkmfiles.net 149 . interrogation D. time of disposition chain of custody time of custody time of disposal 20. all of the above 24. B. physical reconstruction C. The warrant of arrest is good only for A. inductive reasoning D. D. A technique useful in investigation with the application of instrumental detection of deception is called A.A. information C. fingerprint testing D. A. and psychological insight of the initiator in interpreting the information relevant to the case is called A. Defense B. interview 23. polygraph testing 21. modus operandi C. 10 days B. instrumentation B. The effectiveness of this tool in investigation depends on the craft. methodology D. logic. none of these 22. corpus delicti B. Allegation www. C. deductive reasoning B. ballistic test B. The systematic classification of the fundamentals or basic factors of a criminal method is called A. mental reconstruction 25. questioned document test C. The defense of the suspect that he was present in a place other than the crime scene during the estimated time when the crime was committed is called A. 15 days C. It is a type of reconstruction of crime wherein collected information is analyzed carefully thereby developing a theory of the crime. Civil cases C. Criminalistics D. The lawful act of restraining a person believed to have committed a crime and placing him under custody is termed as A. methods and processes while detecting and investigating crimes is technically called A. Police to the prosecutor's office B. Arrest D. deduction approach B. Criminal Justice B. logical reasoning C. The use of scientific instruments. Preponderance of evidence is the weight and sufficiency of evidence needed to convict a person in A. That type of reasoning used in reconstruction of the crime whereby the detective assumes a theory based on collected information is regarded as A. Restraint C. positive approach 29. Murder cases B. This is called A. Prosecutor directly to the court 28. Offended party directly to the court C.net 150 . inductive approach D. identifying prime suspects and finding the guilty person.rkmfiles. Fiscal against the offended party D. Complaint document is filed by the A. Forensic Science C. Information B. Imprisonment B. These are hints that suggest lines of investigative actions and information that is valuable in expanding the universe of suspects. Detention 30. Instrumentation 31. Investigative leads C. Criminal cases www. Statement 26. Alibi D.C. Corpus delicti D. Modus operandi 27. “Releases the crime scene to the officer on case” is the function of A. DNA examination C. By forcible surrender B. system of a particular offender in committing a crime is known as A. The method employed by peace officers to trap and catch malefactor in inflagrante delicto is known as A. Entrapment D. sketcher www. modus operandi D. all of the above 35. physical construction B. modus operandi B. In portrait parle method the witness provides a vivid physical appearance of the offender. By detention C. By virtue of a warrant 33. The application of the same or substantially the same pattern. Macro-etching B. team leader C. Photographic files D. Facial appearance 34. Verbal description C. DNA typing 38.D. Which of the following is under the Field Laboratory Work of the SOCO? A. Portrait parle means A. The two forms of arrest are arrest by actual restraint and A. Premeditation B. mental reconstruction D.net 151 . crime reconstruction 37. “buy-bust” C. evidence custodian B.rkmfiles. Instigation 36. Casting D. plan. crime scene investigation C. None of these 32. An effort made to determine what actually occurred and what the circumstances of a crime were is called A. plan C. By voluntary submission D. Oral discussion B. otherwise known as: A.D. positive evidence 40. a relentless investigator and a king-hearted man is called A. conclusive evidence C. gathering information first then developing a theory on how the crime was committed is one approach. The following are authorized to issue a valid search warrant. except: A. RTC Judge 44. RA 8353 D. An interrogation technique where to police officers are employed. expert evidence D. competent evidence B. technician 39. Presiding Judge of MCTC C. substantial evidence 41. French System D. document evidence B. None of these 43. “The xerox copy signed by Rose” is an example of A. All of these 45. tom and jerry D. RA 8177 B. mutt and jeff C. What law enumerated and provided definition of the different felonies in the Philippines? A. Deductive reasoning B. Productive reasoning www. direct evidence C. Evidence which the law does not allow to be contradicted is known as A. RA 6975 C.rkmfiles. In crime reconstruction. Appellate Judge B. Which of the following detective system prioritized on information that are bought? A. Inductive reasoning C. none of the above 42. secondary evidence D. shifting the blame B.net 152 . English System C. American System B. Chief Prosecutor D. Inflagrante Delicto D. It pertains to law. which deal with the application of medical knowledge to the purpose of law and in the Administration of justice. Medico Legal C. Nursing B.D. Which of the following is useful in the investigation of hit and run accidents? A. the investigating officer might reasonably suspect that: A. A. Records of accidents and stolen vehicles D. Jurisprudence C. Res Ipsa Loquitor B. it also refer anything conformable to the law.net 153 . Pragmatic reasoning 46. all of the above 51. When 6 pedestrians who witnessed an automobile accident all tell identical stories. Sanction D.rkmfiles. A. Motor vehicle registers B. A. Pare Delicto C. arising out of. None of these 49. Rule C. Legal B. The legal maxim which means “both drivers displayed negligence” A. Legal D. Law or Legal D. All of these 48. Locus criminis 50. Jurisdiction B. The branch of medicine. None of these 47. Employees of the body fender shops C. the story which they tell is true since they all agree so perfect www. One of the following denotes things belonging to the court of law or use in court or legal proceeding or something fitted for legal or legal argumentation. Accident B. he is the source of the most productive evidence B. instruction sign C. key event C. traffic environment C.net 154 . The police must arrived at the scene of the crime as quickly as possible because: A. caution sign 54. traffic warning www.rkmfiles. traffic congestion 57. traffic economy D. traffic engineering B. all of the above 53. some physical evidence may deteriorate D. direction sign D. information sign B. reckless driving C.B. hit and run investigation 55. An event in the road which characterizes the manner of occurrence of a motor vehicle traffic accident is A. The traffic sign that is triangular in shape and have a red colored border is known as: A. traffic citation C. all of these 56. all of the witnesses are dishonest 52. actions and physical features associated with motor collision or accident is called: A. The traffic enforcement action that does not contemplate possible assessment of penalty by the court A. traffic engineering B. the principals are there or may still be present C. The systematic examination of all the facts relating to condition. the delay between the time of the accident and the witnesses time together to discuss and compare their observations C. traffic accident investigation D. traffic arrest B. chain of accident D. The delay resulting from traffic congestion affect not only the time of travel but also the productivity of individual is part of what we call A. educational and the like D. all of the witnesses are close friends with similar physical abilities opinions. An arsonist may rearrange materials or furniture in a room prior to setting it on fire in order to __. Fire of only one origin 61. Intense heat D. the pattern of charring at the point of origin is smaller and deeper than the rest of the areas D. Smell of ammonia B. A. The property was insured substantially more than its actual value at the time of the issuance of the policy. spread the accelerants 62. A. D. 6 of PD 1613. Substantial amounts of flammable substances were stored within the building not necessary in the business. After a fire in which arson is suspected. A. the alligator pattern of charring is not as light absorbent of the surrounding areas B. slow the spread of fire D. you may be able to trace the fire to its origin because __. the point of origin will be darker than the rest of the areas 60. supply the oxygen in the area C. One of the following situations is a good indication of an accidental fire. serve as entrance of firemen 63. Doors and windows that were normally kept open in the course of business were found closed during the fire. The purpose of closing the doors and windows during fire is to __. which of the following circumstances does not constitute a prima facie evidence of arson? A. the checks of the charring process will be larger then the surrounding areas C. C. B.rkmfiles. prevent back draft D. The purpose of opening the doors and windows of adjacent rooms in a burning building is to __.net 155 . A. confine the fire C.D. The fire started in more than one part of the building or establishment. camouflage the odor of accelerants www. A. mislead the investigators B. traffic violation 58. Fire of several origin C. 59. In accordance with Sec. extinguish the fire B. stop the fire B. A. The fire that started in almost all corners of the building at the same time is called __. Over loading C. The “eyes and ears” of the investigators in fire investigation are the A. Injection method www. Victims D. which draws electrical current beyond the designed capacity of the electrical circuit. rapidity of spread D. consulting the original structure blueprint on file B. locating the hardware used in the construction of such doors 69. Firemen 66. A. all of the above 64. A building which is unsafe in case of fire because it lacks adequate fire exit is said to be a __. A. the position of doors and windows during the fire whether opened or closed may be ascertained by __.net 156 . Using electrical appliances.rkmfiles. A. Over capacity 70. Fire trap C. collecting broken pieces of window glasses D. non-related burning D. interviewing spectators C. size of fire C. If the fire is set by rationale motive. By standers B. is known as __. separate burning B. provide a quick burning situation D. A. Topical method B. intensity of fire B. The introduction of drugs into the deeper layer of the skin by means of special electric current is known as: A. Over plugging D. Fire hazard B. related burning 67. origin of fire 65. Over using B. the important point to establish is ___. In cases where a structure is completely burned to the ground. simultaneous burning C. Arsonists C. Fire resistive D. Fire unsafe 68.C. City of Dope B. they may interact with: A. Erythroxylon coca D. there maybe an over extension of its effect which is commonly called: A. it’s chemical component B. the marijuana resin D. Oral method 71. Hashis refers to: A. Cannabis Sativa B. Opium use in China was stemmed out from India and became widespread in the 19th Century. person’s tolerance C. body absorption D. Iran and Afghanistan which is known as the: A. unexpected results D. When two drugs are taken together. marijuana leaves 77. Peyote Cactus 75. good effects B. Allergic reaction C. Side effect D. Coca Bush C. male marijuana plant B. Overdose B. a Muslim leader. From Middle East. Hashis C. food and water intake 74. The opium poppy plant is scientifically known as: A.net 157 . female marijuana plant C. The word hashis is derived from the name Hasan/Hashasin. no effects 73. Marijuana B. Golden Crescent www. Opium Poppy D. When too much drug is taken into the physiological system of the human body. Which of the following is considered as the world’s oldest cultivated plant as a source of prohibited drug? A. or with in a few hours of each other. Iontophoresis D. Idiosyncracy 72. Pakistan.C. bad effects C. The actual action of a particular drug depend on the basis of: A.rkmfiles. None of these 76. the plant was cultivated in India. R.rkmfiles. Methamphetamine Hydrochloride 81. 6425 82. Which of the following law was enacted to provide for the registration of collection. Borax C. R.A 7659 D. Sulfur 84. A. Among the following was the German pharmacist who discovered the morphine drug. Allan Heithfield B. Manic depressive D. Falling materials D. R. Phosphate of ammonia D. Morpheum Illness B. Uncontrollable impulse to incendiarism is commonly known as A. Arson www. Green triangle D.A. Asphyxiation 83. One of the following is a fire resistant item. Amphetamine Sulfate B. Pedophilia C. Shock B. The cause of majority of fire deaths is: A. Acetonyl Dioxide D. and the imposition of fixed and special taxes upon all persons who engage in illegal drug production? A. Asbestos B. Alder Wright 79. Troy Mcweigh C.C. Diacetylmorphine C. Burn C. Golden triangle 78. American Addiction D. Kleptomania B. What is the chemical name of the Heroin drug? A. Freidrich Serturner D. A. Soldier’s Disease phenomenon C. 953 B. PD 44 C. Dreamer’s syndrome 80.net 158 .A. What do you call the incident where vast numbers of American soldiers were addicted on the morphine drug during the American Civil War? A. rkmfiles. the three searchers follow each other along the path of a spiral. Quadrant search D. Downward D. the whole building has turned into ashes. He was a buckle maker then a brothel operator. Which among the following is responsible for the spread of fire in the building? A. Sideward C. Normally. A fire started from the basement of the building. Details B. In this method. a master criminal who became London’s most effective criminal investigator. Undeveloped D. Allan Pinkerton 89. Henry Fielding B. Conclusions 87. Synopsis C. Chales Dickens 88. What part of the investigation report that gives a brief summary of the major investigative steps accomplished? A. Smoke C.net 159 . Round the clock method of search C. Heat B. The America’s most famous private investigator and founder of Criminal Investigation in USA. Henry Fielding B. Jonathan Wild C. None of these 90. A. A.85. but the least likely path a fire will follow is A. A. John Fielding D. Skip method search B. Jonathan Wild C. John Fielding D. After 30 minutes. He was the most famous thief catcher in 1720s. Outward laterally 86. He established the practice of handwriting examination in American courts and promoted a plan to centralize criminal identification records. beginning on the outside and spiraling in toward the center. Upward B. fire feeds in all directions. Flame www. Combustion products 91. Traffic system C. Accelerants C. Phase D. Interval www. The total time required for the complete sequence of the phase is known as: A. Signal system B. The sudden ignition of accumulated radical gases produced when there is incomplete combustion of fuel A.net 160 . Timing 96. The time within which the traffic indicates of any particular traffic signal face does not change: A. Cycle C. Timing D. Backdraft B. Plants B. Trailers D.D. Acceleration flow D. Saturation flow B. These are used by fire setters in spreading the fire throughout the building A. Smooth flow 94. A signal system is created when two or more signals on any traffic route is coordinated with a fixed time relationship among the several intervals known as: A. Cycle length C. Cycle B. A flow which would be obtained if there is a continuous flow of vehicle and are given a one hundred percent green time is called: A. Gasoline 92.rkmfiles. Traffic flow C. Traffic signals 95. Flashover D. Traffic lights D. Biteback 93. Interval B. Flashfire C. End of Set Two - CRIMINOLOGISTS Licensure Examination Second Day .m. overtaking allowed D. Cycle split 99. – 5:00 p. Interval 98. Cycle time C.3:30 p. Timing B. Cycle split D. Signal cycle D. ETHICS & HUMAN RELATIONS SET ONE www. a yellow or white line with a dotted white line means that A. absolutely no overtaking C.97. Traffic phase C. Traffic phase 100. Offset B. you cannot overtake if the solid is in your side B. Phase D.On a highway.rkmfiles. Split B. A portion of a signal cycle during which an assignment of right of way is made to given traffic management: A. ================================================================ REVIEW QUESTIONS IN CRIMINAL SOCIOLOGY. Cycle length C. The number of times allocated to each phase of traffic light is called: A. the objective of traffic signal time apportionment to secure movement with safety through an intersection with a minimum delay is called: A. keep right .m.net 161 . A.INSTRUCTION: Select the correct answer for each of the following questions. Ethics B. A person who has violated the penal law and has been found guilty by the court. Anthropology 2. A. 5.rkmfiles. as a standard against which actions are evaluated. conduct It is the study of human society. opportunity denial D. Accused B. Mark only one answer for each item by marking the box corresponding to the letter of your choice on the answer sheet provided. Law B. STRICTLY NO ERASURES ALLOWED. functions and direction. Psychology B. Suspect D. Use pencil no. MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. law enforcement B. structure. A. Parolee C. Criminal A body of knowledge regarding crime as a social phenomenon. A. order maintenance The society’s prime instrument for making known what acts are crimes and what sanctions may be applied to those who commit acts defined as crimes. public services C. Sociology D. Ethics D. Justice A social norm providing guidance for people in their dealings with one another. www.net 162 6. A. Justice C. 4. 1 only. . Law C. The Police seek to prevent crimes by being present in places where crimes might be committed and by alerting citizens to refrain from practices that make them or their property vulnerable. its origin. Criminology C. 3. and as a prescription or requirement that people act justly. Conduct D. C. B. hallucination C. biological determinism D. Cesare Lombroso C. A. Henry Goddard D. Science concerned with improving the quality of human off springs. Determinism Somatology Positivism Atavism 8. D. protection of rights D. law enforcement B. Criminology D. A. Scientific approach based upon mental processes and characteristics.net 163 . A. criminal psychology criminal sociology criminal law criminology The reduction or elimination of the desire and opportunity to commit a crime. emotional determinism C. Reacting to events with alertness and vigilance and a feeling of persecution. psychogenic determinism B. B. A. C. Heredity 12. Genetics B. dementia praecox B. A. 10.A. criminological determinism www. of classifying human physical characteristics. order maintenance The primary advocate of the Positivist School in Criminology. paranoia D.rkmfiles. 7. depression 11. Eugenics C. Augusto Comti The science A. 9. D. Cesare Beccaria B. crime prevention C. A. has sufficient causes. A. Delusions C. Socialism D. The principle that events. An irrational fear which is fixed. intense. including criminal behavior. Family D. Phobia B. A. Atavism D. Community C. Morality C. Positivism B. Determinism C. The principle which states that man. by nature. Victimology 17. Nazism 14. Ethics D. Hedonism C. Atavism 19. School 16. It is the most basic social institution and is the most potentially effective agency of social control. Regression D. always tries to maximize pleasure and avoid pain. Criminals who acted under the impulse of uncontrolled emotion on occasion during otherwise moral lives. Anxiety 18. Penology B. It has the power to define and punish crimes. A. uncontrollable and often has no reasonable foundation. A. Criminal psychology C. Utopia B. Criminal profiling D. www. criminals of passion C. Discernment B.13. Church B.rkmfiles.net 164 . The mental capacity to distinguish right from wrong. Imbecility 20. born criminals 15. A. A sub-discipline of criminology which focuses on victims of crime. A. occasional criminals D. seasonal criminals B. acquisitive crime B. Ego B. paranoia D. extinctive crime C. A. Id C. D. theory of biological inferiority B. manic depression C. illegal gambling C. theory of differential association D. A. According to psychoanalysis. seasonal crime D. illegal detention D. this is a form of psychosis characterized by thinking disturbance and regression. A doctrine which criminals were seen as distinct types of humans who could be distinguished from non criminals by certain physical traits. theory of evolution 24. A. B. theory of natural selection C.rkmfiles. Schizophrenia B.net 165 . this refers to the conscience of man. Reformation C.A. static crime www. Vagrancy B. Retribution B. illegal possession of prohibited drugs 22. Which of the following is not a victimless crime? A. Rejection D. Church State Judiciary Police 21. A type of crime in which the end result is destructive. A. The purpose of penalty in the Positivist School of Criminology. super ego D. spirit 26. Referred to as dementia praecox. A. C. psychopathy 25. Restitution 23. The reading of charges against the accused in the open court and the declaration of his plea of guilty or not guilty. Seizure C. void arrest C. Trial 33. Arrest 29. hearing D. A. Study of criminality a community. juridical arrest 30. Criminal B. Detention D. A. A. Corrections B. Sentencing C. court 32. A. Arraignment D. executive power B. The authority of the court to hear or determine a case. A. A. citizen’s arrest B.27. The major function of the PROSECUTION component of the Criminal Justice System. Criminal in relation to spatial distribution in epidemiology demography psychology determinism 28. Criminal C. Prosecutions C. A. To rehabilitate prisoners www. law enforcement D. To enforce the laws of the land B. decision 31. A valid warrant less arrest. Criminal D. Charging B. jurisdiction C. A component or pillar of the Criminal Justice System which is involved in the administration of appropriate sanctions in keeping with the sentence handed down.rkmfiles.net 166 . illegal arrest D. The taking of a person into custody in order that he may be bound to answer for the commission of an offense. Search B. defense of instigation B. A. The machinery of the State designed to enforce the law by arresting. solution of a crime C. Due Process of Law 36. It means not only observed acts of crime but the results of a crime. but of threats of loss of life.C. defense of duress 38. D. Bible B. A. Media D. adjudication of a crime 35.rkmfiles. Law B. A. Government C. A. defense of consent C. limb or a loved one. A law enforcement function in order to preserve social and public order. Court B.net 167 . This defense in a criminal case is based on the claim that the act was the result. crime prevention 37. Ethics C. Criminal Justice System D. Protection B. defense of alibi D. Conduct www. Common Law 34. The society’s primary instrument for making known what acts are crimes and what sanctions may be applied to those who commit acts defined as crimes. prosecuting and adjudicating those accused of violating it and by applying the proper sanctions to those found guilty. which triggers the operation of the criminal justice process. detection of a crime D. A. Constitution C. not of any intent on the part of the accused. 34. To represent the government in criminal cases All of these The supreme law of the Land. order maintenance D. PNP Law D. commission of a crime B. A. crowd control C. child C. the Child and Youth Welfare Code D. The informal component of the Criminal Justice System. prosecution D. A child whose basic needs have been deliberately unattended.net 168 . defense of duress 41. Crime 45. It refers to anti social act which deviates from normal pattern of rules and regulations A. A. A. Delinquency D.rkmfiles. rehabilitation D. A function of the Prosecution. child child is considered0 misuse delinquency defect abuse 43. neglected child B. the Revised Penal Code for children 44. by representing the State in criminal cases and to present the case to the judge. Community B. law enforcement C. A. PD 603 is known as: A. Reiteracion C. abandoned child C. A. defense of consent D. Maltreatment of a A. pleading C. corrections 42. charging 40. the Probation Law C.39. dependent child D. A claim by the accused that he or she was in another place when the crime occurred and therefore could not have committed it. trial advocacy B. abusive child www. defense of alibi C. defense of instigation B. child B. the Parole Law B. Recidivism B. child D. A type of terrorism which is aimed at a victim who symbolizes the State. Stockholm Syndrome www.rkmfiles. Patient D. Narco-terrorism 49. A.46. The following are qualities which must be possessed by a police negotiator except one: A. Religion D. provocative terrorism C. The following are guidelines for police negotiators. provocative terrorism 50.net 169 . Community C. symbolic terrorism B. Flexible B. Foster Home D. A local government together with society of individuals or institutions. Don’t raise the aspirations or expectations of the hostage takers B. Conserve your concession D. A. organizational terrorism C. A. Irrational C. A. knows psychology 52. Oslo Syndrome B. Family B. symbolic terrorism D. A. Give in to all of the terrorists’ demands C. Phenomena in a hostage situation where the hostages become sympathetic to the hostage takers. allegiance terrorism D. Shelter care Institution B. A twenty four hour child caring institution that provide short term resident care for youthful offenders. A. Detention Home 47. organizational terrorism B. except one. Nursery C. Make sure you get something in return for a concession 51. Prison 48. A type of terrorism which is meant to incite the government to repression. Stress Management D. The following are characteristics common to terrorists except one A. A. kidnapping 57. formulation of policies. It is a method whereby an organized group or party seeks to achieve its avowed aims chiefly through the systematic use of violence.C. A. Crisis Management C. Criminals D. conventional warfare B. weapon or equipment B. insurrection C. operate openly B. Crusaders B. procedures and techniques for dealing with sudden violent acts of terrorists. cause dramatic change in the government C. Which of the following is considered least among terroristic tactic? A. Hostage Negotiation 58. terrorism D. noise barrage B. satisfy vengeance D. free prisoners 55. these are terrorists who are using terrorism to change society. possess limited resources 54.rkmfiles. promote fear D. insurgency 59. A. Crazies C. The following are short range terrorists goal except one A. highly mobile C. The most important consideration in a hostage taking situation. According to Frederick Hacker. D. obtain money. assassination C. Threat Analysis B. Mercenaries 56. Hostage Syndrome Helsinki Syndrome 53. www. The effective planning. bombing D.net 170 . net 171 . A. protection of life media coverage protection of property capture of the hostage taker 60. he is not authorized to grant concessions C. give in to all demands D. assault operation D. Negotiation B. A.A. crowd control D. look friendly or accommodating 61. negotiation 66. this is a non-negotiable item. Control C. hostage takers will be afraid B. The highest ranking field commander should not also be the chief negotiator because A. validate B. A. give his name B. giving in to demands 65. Food B. of conflict of interest as mediator and decision maker D.rkmfiles. A. D. A. give his rank and designation C. hostage takers will not trust him 63. logic D. the negotiator should not: A. B. The last option in a hostage situation. C. community relations B. negotiate C. firearm 62. ethics C. Assault B. The study of standards of conduct and moral judgment. The first step in a hostage situation. extricate D. media access C. crowd control C. psychology www. It means to arrange by conferring or discussing. telephone D. congregate 64. In dealing with the hostage taker. In a hostage situation. Misconduct www. Which of the following is not a police custom on courtesy? A. courtesy call 69. Morality C. A mental or moral training that makes a man willing to be subject to controls and regulations for the good of the entire group of which he is a member. police conduct D. A. as where he acts without any authority whatsoever or exceeds. A. ignores or abuses his powers. The branch of moral science which treats of the duties which a police officer owes to the public and community. Ethics 68. incompetence C. dishonesty D. Discipline C. Morale 71.net 172 . police professionalism C. gross misconduct B. disloyalty 73. address/title C. of that which the police officer had no legal right to do at all. a manifestation of sportsmanship and an exposition of gentility and culture. Dishonesty C. dignity and attitude of an individual towards work and his integrity and his practice of the core moral value principles. police philosophy B. A. The concealment or distortion of truth in a matter of fact relevant to one’s office. It refers to the commitment. Salute B. A. police ethics 70. Morale 72. Professionalism D. inattention or malice. It is the essence of good manners. A. Loyalty D.rkmfiles.67. Courtesy B. The doing either through ignorance. Discipline C. Loyalty D. A. Conduct B. Incompetence B. or connected with the performance of his duties. Courtesy B. giving gifts D. D. Police officers shall treat official business as such. command by discipline 79. and shall not impart the same to anyone except those for whom it is intended. command responsibility C. B. C. confession D. A. The omission or refusal. admission C. to endure without yielding. Police Public Relations www. Police Relations C. A. Value C. Misconduct C. Perseverance Endurance Fortitude Prudence 80. criminal investigation B. Authority of a person he exercised over his subordinates. Dignity D. responsibility of post D. Neglect of duty 74. or as directed by his superior officer. without sufficient excuse. A. confidential information 77. A. Bribery 75. Police Community Relations D. Bribery B. Virtue B. Moonlighting C. Neglect of duty D. Conscience 78. The courage A. A voice of reason bidding oneself to avoid evil and do good. Neglect of duty D. which is the officer’s legal obligation to perform.net 173 . A. This refers to the sum total of dealings of the police with the people it serves.rkmfiles. A. Misconduct 76.D. to perform an act or duty. Incompetence B. chain of command B. Human Relations B. police officers are not permitted or allowed to engage in any other business or calling. As a general rule. or as required by law. The stage of the criminal justice process which involves the convicted person’s serving the sentence imposed. Crisis B. A. Justice B. the evaluation of the threat. threat analysis D.rkmfiles.81. Corrections C. The calculated use of violence or threat of violence to attain political. Civic Action programs D. Adjudication D. Office of the Ombudsman B. surveillance operation 84. crisis management B.net 174 . serve some functions or meet some objectives. Strike C. Coordinator 85. A. charging www. A. A judicial tribunal designed to administer justice. Crime D. The assessment of our own vulnerabilities. Victim B. A. Court D. Public Information Program B. Mass Communications Programs 82. Feedback D. Environment 87. religious or ideological goals by instilling fear or using intimidation or coercion. Negotiator D. It is designed to influence public opinion in favor of the police force. hostage negotiation C. Jury C. Hostage C. A. Sentencing B. Public Relations C. One which consists of several parts that interacts with each other to produce some results. A. Department of Justice 83. threat groups and probable targets. A. A person who is held as a security for the fulfillment of certain demands or terms. Terrorism 86. System C. Lombroso B.88. When an individual experience tension and anxiety increases making him/her helpless. A. Garofalo 93. Bill of Rights B. Fiscal B. He is the primary advocate of the “Theory of Differential Association”. Lombroso B. Sutherland C. The author of “ Origin of Species” and “ The Descent of Man”. Judge D. Sutherland C. A. Frustration C. Police officer C. Policeman’s Code 89. The recital of the rights of a suspect during custodial investigation. Beccaria D. A. Code of Ethics D. Beccaria D. Viscerotonic B.rkmfiles. Garofalo 91. Hallucination www.net 175 . Beccaria D. Mesomorphic C. Miranda Warning C. A. Conflict D. This type of physique has relatively predominant muscles. Victim 94. A. A. thus he experience negative feelings called A. Lombroso B. bones and motor organs of the body. Garofalo 92. The author of “On Crimes and Punishment” and the primary advocate of the Classical School of Criminology. Endomorphic D. Darwin C. The one who determines personally the existence of probable cause in the issuance of a search warrant. Ectomorphic 90. Crisis B. two things C.m. Camorra C. crime confederation D. Sutherland B. intimidates and negotiates into a relationship with the police or public official? A. None of these B. Quinney C.rkmfiles. R. Darwin 99. Mob D. who is the most vulnerable group to abuse and suffer threats? A. E. In the study of organized crimes. who bribes. Accessory to theft D.95. Corruptee CRIMINOLOGISTS Licensure Examination Second Day . Forgery C. buys. children D. crime syndicate 97. – 5:00 p. What is the strict code of conduct that governs the organized crime group behavior? A. Among the following. police B. Who defined White-collar crime as a criminal act committed by a person of respectability and high social status in the course of his or her occupation? A. Larceny E. Durkheim D. parents C.net 176 . Fencing 100.m. Omerta B. Paul likes to buy stolen cellular phones. old age 96. Corrupter D. which of the following best defines the term “Costa Nostra”? A. ETHICS & HUMAN RELATIONS SET TWO www. Enforcer B.3:30 p. ================================================================= REVIEW QUESTIONS IN CRIMINAL SOCIOLOGY. E. one thing B. C.In the Organized crime world. Instigator C. Tamero 98. His act is an act of A. PO3 Gomez declined claiming that the man was already a block away from them and besides the police officer alleged that he is rushing home for an urgent matter.INSTRUCTION: Select the correct answer for each of the following questions. nonfeasance B. STRICTLY NO ERASURES ALLOWED. 4. either verbal or physical. Use pencil no. Rea mensa If physiological or psychological dependence on some agent are obviously detected from a person. Aggression D. malfeasance C.rkmfiles. suspended C. directed at others A. misconduct When the accused is found not guilty of the charges presented before the court. he is A. misfeasance D. dependency or addiction B. insanity D. acquitted D. comatose C. Dependency C.net 177 . he is in the state of A. MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Violence www. The officer’s refusal to help the old woman is an example of A. 1 only. absuelto Guilty by act means A. Actus Numbus C. Abnormality B. Which of the following is described as the threatening behaviors. Mark only one answer for each item by marking the box corresponding to the letter of your choice on the answer sheet provided. An old woman approached PO3 Gomez asking the police officer to run after an unidentified young man who allegedly snatched her mobile phone. Giltus reus D. convicted B. Actus Reus B. 3. metamorphosis 2. 5. punching. Alternative measures C.6. Chaos D. intentional. Isolated B. What kind of assault committed when it includes kicking. Battering B. Individual response against bad behavior D. What do you call measures other than judicial proceedings used to deal with a young person alleged to have committed an offense? A. Directive When there is an apparent. Isolated C. Sexual D. Overt What aggressive behavior includes the emotional and cognitive components of aggression such as anger and hostility? A. Interactive D. Extra judicial proceedings www. Covert D. Assault C. verbal abuse-name calling. 10. Verbal 11. Assert or make an accusation B. Allege means A. Covert B. and self destructive behaviors? A. Physical C. verbal abusethreat. Covert C. 8. and physically aggressive act irrespective of severity against another person.net 178 . What aggressive behavior includes repeated noncompliance to a direct command. Crisis 7. Mental B. Interactive D. remove from its position C. deliberately throwing an object and drawing a lethal weapon against someone? A. intentional mutilation 12. Dynamic C. Interactive B.rkmfiles. Overt What aggressive behavior includes cursing/swearing. 9. there is A. and physical abuse? A. Rehabilitation B. direct an act from doing D. intentional destruction of property. To validate an items unaltered authenticity. What do we call the psychological. all of the above 17.13.net 179 . the authenticity of an item as evidence is crucial. for which the death penalty is imposed B. Incapacitated Child Syndrome C. At trial. Dementia praecox 15. at the hand of an adult in a position of trust. a record must be www. Battered Woman Syndrome C. Woman Menopausal Syndrome B. a medical record or a photograph. inexcusable violence or injury. The item cannot be offered in court without a testimonial sponsor who can vouch for its unaltered authenticity to the court and the jury. A term used to describe a clinical condition in young children who have received non-accidental. generally a parent or guardian A.rkmfiles. emotional and behavioral reactions and deficits of women victims and their inability to respond effectively to repeated physical and psychological violence? A. When we say capital offense. the highest penalty for selected offenses C. whether it be a physical object like a bullet. None of these 16. Brain lesion theory B. total punishment of offender by incarceration D. ranging from minimal to severe or fatal trauma. Neurotic Mind theory D. a very serious crime. What is the theory that tumors and seizures have been associated with aggression and violent behavior? A. MNaughten Rule 14. Battered Child Syndrome B. Conspiracy theory C. it means: A. Abuse Trauma Syndrome D. Violence against women D. False alarm B. Status offense C.kept of each and every time the item changes hands. Chain of custody D. Modus operandi C. This refers to A. Overt abuse D. Both A and B are correct D. Children in conflict with the law 23. Records management B. Evidence B. Incoherence D. left. Presentation of evidence in court C. Clandestine abuse B. Delusion 22. An abuse that is kept secret for a purpose. A false belief based on an incorrect inference about external reality and firmly sustained despite clear evidence to the contrary. The exchange of sexual favors for money or other material goods without any emotional involvement involving a person under the age of 18 years is called A. altered or contaminated during the commission of a crime by either the suspect or victim is part of A. and which is not related to cultural or religious beliefs A. Child trafficking C.rkmfiles. Child Dilemma D. Anything that has been used. Child Neglect C. The negligent treatment or maltreatment of a child by a parent or caretaker under circumstances indicating harm or threatened harm to the child's health or welfare is known as A. Both A and B are wrong 20.net 180 . Laboratory analysis of items 18. Wrong perception C. Child Abuse B. Child in conflict with the law 19. removed. Delinquency offense D. Recidivism www. Child prostitution B. Adult offense B. concealed. or underhanded is called A. Clinical abuse C. Abuse of authority 21. Which of the following is an act committed by a juvenile for which an adult could be prosecuted in a criminal court? A. a few phone calls. a public trial. A.net 181 . Sporadic visits. Murder D. Acquittal B. Criminal procedure B. Infliction B. Khotongism 26. or bail. Trial www. Conviction C.D. The phase of a delinquency hearing similar to a "trial" in adult criminal court. The most common legal grounds for termination of parental rights. A. Abuse C. or birthday cards are not sufficient to maintain parental rights. Capital punishment 25. Preservation of crime scene 24. Racketeering D. what is the form of abuse where the use of the victim is for selfish purposes and or financial gain? A. Abandonment 27. Summary procedure D. Administrative procedure C. except that juveniles have no right to a jury trial. as a legal penalty. Generally. putting to death a person. Execution C.rkmfiles. or support orders by an executive agency rather than by courts or judges. Expoloitation C. is called A. Verbal Abuse B. A. Which of the following is defined as acts or omissions by a legal caretaker that encompasses a broad range of acts. custody. Adjudication D. also a form of child abuse in most states. Any of the processes involving enforcement of care. Abuse B. Abandonment 28. Neglect D. A. and usually requires proof of intent. Exploitation B. Neglect D. Entertainment 29. Exploitation C. Among the following. Jeff 34. Parental Guidance C. The Law established by the history of judicial decisions in cases decided by judges. Best interest of the Child Rule D. Matt v. as opposed to common law which is developed from the history of judicial decisions and social customs. Child’s care B. and usually with a trial "live-in" period. the records are sealed and only the most compelling interests will enable disclosure of documents. Child prosecution B. The filing of legal papers by a child welfare agency when its investigation has turned up evidence of child abuse. Once it is finalized. The act of being responsible for enforcing child support obligations is known as A. Jeff 33. Miranda v. A legal relationship between two people not biologically related. Breed v. Foster parenting C. Breed v. Arizona D. A. rather than criminal. Common law relationship D. Parens Patriae D. Matt v. Rights of Society B.30. This is a civil. charge designed to take preventive action. Parental Obligation 32.rkmfiles. Miranda Doctrine C. Arizona D. What was the case that allowed second prosecution in adult court for conviction in juvenile court which was based on idea that first conviction was a "civil" matter? A. Child protection action C. Jones C. Brotherhood 31. Adoption B. A. Case Law B. Child at risk D. Miranda v. like appointment of a guardian for at-risk children before abuse occurs. Jones C. What is the legal doctrine establishing court as determiner of best environment for raising child which is an alternative to the Parens Patriae Doctrine? A. Preliminary investigation 35. Child support www. Case Law B. A.net 182 . usually terminating the rights of biological parents. and individualized sentences rather than imposing standard sentences. separate from adults. Emancipation D. Custodial confinement D. Judgment C. Compelling reasons are considered to exist for treating children differently. Enlightenment B. Disposition D. Parens Patriae Doctrine B.rkmfiles. It a phase of delinquency proceeding similar to "sentencing" phase of adult trial. A. A clause requiring government to treat similarly situated people the same or have good reason for treating them differently. Dependent C. innovative.net 183 . A. Preliminary investigation B. Delinquent B. Subpoena C. A child ceases to be a dependent when they reach the age of emancipation. Equal Protection C. The independence of a minor from his or her parents before reaching age of majority is known as A.36. Recognizance 38. Diversion 41. Equal Protection C. Poisonous Tree Doctrine www. What is the legal doctrine preventing unemancipated children from suing their parents? A. ___ is anyone under the care of someone else. Independent D. Summon B. Rehabilitation order 37. A court order for placement in a secure facility. A. Bill of Rights B. for the rehabilitation of a juvenile delinquent. A. Recognizance C. The judge must consider alternative. Parens Patriae D. Family Immunity Doctrine D. Freedom from parental obligation 40. Probationary period 39. In Loco Parentis D. Guardianship B. Guardian ad litem means: A. Preventive detention B. A guardian of the estate is usually an organization. None of the above 43. The emergency. Order of Authority C. and babysitters who are viewed as having some temporary parental rights & obligations are considered A. What is the legal doctrine holding parents liable for injuries caused by a child's negligent driving or other actions? A. administrators. Teachers. Order of Authority C. temporary custody by a child welfare agency. “Protection of child by the law” C. “For the Proceeding" B. What is the legal doctrine establishing "parental" role of state over welfare of its citizens.net 184 . like a bank. Parens Patriae 47. In Loco Parentis D. or hospital for reasons of immanent danger to the child is called A. Guardians are usually compensated for their services. police agency.42. Family Immunity Doctrine C. A court order giving an individual or organization legal authority over a child. Family Purpose Doctrine B. Parens Patriae Doctrine D. Witness protection program D. Protective custody www. which manages the property and assets of a child's inheritance. “Legal authority” 44. A. Parens Patriae 45. especially its children? A. Guardianship B. Guardianship B.rkmfiles. Parens Patriae 46. Diversion C. Order of Authority C. A guardian of the person is usually an individual and the child is called a ward. “Guardians of the little children” D. In Loco Parentis D. A disposition requiring a defendant to pay damages to a victim. Foster parent 52. Examples include truancy. A. Parental Selection 49. Protection money 50. Paternity C. What is the legal doctrine granting custody to the parent whom the child feels the greatest emotional attachment to? A. or habitually disobeying parents. What is the legal doctrine that unless the mother is "unfit".net 185 . Stubbornness 51. Illegitimacy www. A. None of these B. A.rkmfiles. Psychological Parent B. Psychological Parent Doctrine C. but not when done by an adult. Stepparent D.48. Maternity B. Status Offenses D. or uterus with an intent of giving the child up for adoption to specific parties. Stepparent C. running away. very young children should be placed in custody with their mother following a divorce? A. Surrogate Parent 53. A. A spouse of a biological parent who has no legal rights or duties to the child other than those which have been voluntarily accepted. Restitution D. Bond B. A parent who provided an egg. Foster Parent D. curfew. Poor families cannot be deprived of probation simply because they are too poor to afford it. Paternity D. Unwed Mother’s Doctrine D. Surity C. An activity illegal when engaged in by a minor. Adult Offenses B. The law prohibits making it a condition of receiving probation. Tender Years Doctrine B. Minor Offenses C. Maternity C. sperm. Abused Children B. having committed an offense under Philippine laws is considered A. Juvenile offender 59. The apprehension or taking into custody of a child in conflict with the law by law enforcement officers or private citizens is termed as: A. Child’s role 57.rkmfiles. furnished by him/her or a bondsman. Neglected Children C. Rights C. Unfit Parent B. Mental Disturbance D. It refers to the totality of the circumstances and conditions most congenial to the survival. Best interest of the child B. protection and feelings of security of the child and most encouraging to the child’s physical. Children at risk 58. Child at risk 55. None of these 56. Child in conflict with the law C. or criminal record? A. Surety B. or neglect. accused of. Initial contact C. Child at risk B. Children in conflict with the law D. A. Minor offense D. Obligations D. Conditions D. family and social circumstances are considered A. Children who are vulnerable to and at the risk of committing criminal offenses because of personal. to guarantee his/her appearance before any court. Psychological Incapacitation C. All of the above www. Child custody D.net 186 . or adjudged as. but also including mental illness. What is declared of a temporary or permanent termination of parental rights in the best interest of the child usually for reasons of abandonment. A child who is alleged as. It refers to the security given for the release of the person in custody of the law. Money order C. Arrest B.54. addiction. psychological and emotional development. A. abuse. Bail 62. An undertaking in lieu of a bond assumed by a parent or custodian who shall be responsible for the appearance in court of the child in conflict with the law. Victimless crime C. Proactive justice B. which may include counseling. skills training. education. Child abuse C. Status offense B. Centuries ago. None of these 63. Child prostitution D. It may take the form of an individualized treatment program. intervention C.rkmfiles. reformation guide B. Status offense B. welfare procedures 61. Reactive justice D. Child racketeering 65. The accused were innocent if they could survive an ordeal. All of the above 64. What is the doctrine that requires a process of resolving conflicts with the maximum involvement of the victim. Guilt and innocence were established by a variety of procedures that presumably called forth the supernatural allies of the accused. What is the type of offense committed where there is no private offended party involved? A. they were guilty if they died at the stake or if omens were associated with them. Restorative justice C.60. One of the following is an act constituting exploitation and sex abuse among children in exchange of any form of incentive. and other activities that will enhance his/her psychological. The series of activities designed to address issues that caused the child to commit an offense. when required is known as A.net 187 . emotional and psycho-social well-being is called A. None of these C. criminal behavior was believed to be the result of evil spirits and demons. diversion D. Minor crime D. the offender and the community? A. Child trafficking B. In the 18th century. this spiritual determination began to give way to: www. A. Recognizance D. D. The belief that man is a demon and devil D. Neo-classical School of Criminology B. Among the following classical thoughts in Criminology is not correct: A. The Differential Association Theory provides a good illustration of a social learning approach perspective in Criminology Criminal behavior according to this theory is: A. The positivist thoughts on the other hand is focused on the principle of: A. 66.A. who seek happiness and pleasure and avoid pain C. A result of an emotional disturbance B. Darwinism B. The Classical School of Criminology argues that criminals were primitive creatures. The Classical School of Criminology is an advocate of punishment as a deterrent to crime. An inmate quality of goodness or badness www. Radical Criminology 68. Determinism C. The belief that man is evolved from the animal ape. B. Conceptual Thinking 69. What school of thought in Criminology challenges the proposition that man has absolute free will to choose between good and evil and states that it is not absolute as presumed to be because free will can be diminished by pathology. Cognitive Functioning D.net 188 . The belief that humans are rational creatures with free will. The Classical school of Criminology is spearheaded by Bentham and Beccaria. “pain” and “pleasure’. mental disorders and other conditions that may instigate personal responsibility? A. The Classical School of thoughts in Criminology is based on the principle of free will. incapable of living normally in society. 67. C. The Classical School of Criminology also argued that nature has placed mankind under the governance of two sovereign masters. Positivism C.rkmfiles. The belief that there is no such thing as bad spirits B. Hedonistic Calculus D. he classified criminals as: the born criminal. Which among the following theory on Criminal Behavior is not consistent with the previous statement? A. the twin and fragile with withdrawn behavior B. the impulsive and cruel criminal C.C. the muscular and hard physique C. Criminal Anthropology 71. He classified body physique into three categories as the endomorphic. the typical extravert is one who is: www. In the past. consistent personality dispositions or traits that exert orderly generalized effects on behavior. which appropriately describes the mesomorphic? A. What perspective in Criminology probes the situational or environmental action and examines the underlying conditions with in the environment that may encourage criminal behavior? A.rkmfiles. Psychoanalytical Theory B. Sociological Criminology D. According to Hans Eyesenck. Psychiatric Criminology B. the primitive and atavist 73. Psychological Determination 72. D. the morally insane and hysteric criminal B. the fat and soft body type 74. Of the following statements. Learned and not inherited An excess of wisdom 70. psychologist assumed that they could best understand human behavior by searching for a stable. Some criminology theorists have linked physical characteristics with personality. the mesomorphic and the ectomorphic body. in his study about the behavioral character and incidence to crime. Based on the Lombroso’s works. the attractive and beautifully shaped D. the habitual. the “weak natures” susceptible to bad examples D.net 189 . Which of the following statements describe a criminoloid? A. Strain Theory C. Among these theories is William Sheldon’s Somatotyping theory. Psychological Criminology C. Behavioral descriptions D. the passionate and the criminoloid. These actions simply refers to: A. Emotional abuse C. optimistic and has high needs for excitement B. reserved. which of the following projects paved the way for a reassessment of existing treatment and prevention programs for delinquents? A. Discordant or disturbed family structure D.A. President’s Commission on Law Enforcement in the U.S. the reinforcements for behavior 76. Unfair parent D. Aside from this. the social environment B. Physical Abuse B. oversized. short and untidy D. Chicago Area Project of 1930 B. Anti-social type of family structure C. undersized. Parental neglect www. Social learning reflects the theory’s strong assumption that we learn primarily by observing and listening to people around usA.rkmfiles. One family background predictors in juvenile delinquency is broken home. Parental discipline appears relation to delinquency. Illinois Legislature C. 77. excessive criticizing or generally ignoring the child is also contributory to delinquency. the mental state and brain-mediation processes. screaming at the child. sociable. the stimulus that elicit response C.net 190 . The term broken home is ambiguous but can be characterized by: A. calling the child insulting names. Harsh discipline in the home may result in more delinquencies than consistent and reasoning forms of discipline. quiet and cautious C. Inadequate type of family structure B. social learning theorists place great emphasis on cognitive variables. heavy and firm 75. In the study of juvenile delinquency. To explain human behavior. impulsive. Disrupted or incomplete family structures 78. Boston Child Guidance Clinic D. D. Neoclassical theory of Criminology D. B.rkmfiles. Bipolar disorder B.79. Consistent irresponsibility. The kind of alternate explanation is an influence of the: A. the Irrational Mind Rule 83. however turned out to be another person. emotional flatness. Which of the following is not a symptom of dyssocial behavior? A. It is a popular notion that the brutal. Schizophrenia C. Lack of guilt for wrongdoings.net 191 . the face immobile and expressionless and manifest highly bizarre and add behavior then appropriately he is: A. suffering from psychopathic behavior C. the Durham Rule C. Robert Peel. violent and apparently senseless crime is usually committed by someone who is mentally ill or sick. the M’naghten Rule B. suffering from sexual dysfunctions 80. suffering from schizophrenia or psychotic behavior D. Amnesia www. This case became known as: A. suffering from neurotic behavior B. One day we maybe cool and withdrawn and the next day. then the person is an animal. The court believed he was so mentally deranged that it would be inhuman to convict him since it was clear he was not in control of his faculties. Failure to conform to social norms. Psychopathic behavior D. Episode of schizophrenia like illogical thinking 82. the voice is monotonous. the Brawner Rule D. This condition may fall into the disorder known as: A. Or if not sick. Classical theory of Criminology C. Positivist theory of Criminology B. Differential Association theory of Criminology 81. When a person is seen to show indiscriminate giggling or crying. warm and sociable. as reflected in a poor work history C. A Scottish woodcutter was accused of killing a man he believed to be Prime Minister for thought that he was persecuted by the Tories and their leader. D. Sexual Pyromania B. Children above 9 that below 15 years old C. staying out late.? A. A bank robber who kills some individual with in the bank. Spree Murder C. and kills a number of people while in flight diving a chase would be an example of: A. Covert pathway C. and developing later into avoidance of authority figures like truancy. which is not considered a serious juvenile act? A. Children in conflict with the law 88. Children at puberty age D. harass the people B. Homicide D. There are many pathways to delinquency and a variety of family circumstances contribute to negative behavior in children. always present in the office www. Mass Murder D. None of these 87. Vagrancy 89. Overt pathway D. Children aging from 7 to 12 years B. Masochism 86.84. Serial Murder B. Sexual Sadism C. Sexual Torture D. Multiple Murder 85.rkmfiles. using psychological torment combined with physical methods to lighten his sexual arousal is suffering from: A. Among the following. dress well D. The best PCR a police officer can do to the community is A. Pedro engaged in a multiple means of torture. Authority conflict pathways B.net 192 . etc. running away. perform his job well C. Which of the following refers to juveniles who have doli incapax? A. Larceny C. Forcible sexual intercourse B. Recent research and legal literature suggest that a useful away of classifying juvenile crime is to distinguish between serious and non-serious acts and between serious and non-serious offenders. Which of the following developmental pathways to delinquency begins with stubborn behavior. then defiant behavior. flees with hostages. Which of the following is the basic political unit of the Filipino nation that implements the policies of the national and local government? A. Ambush D.90. Support Unit Commander 94. A comprehensive plan which delineates responsibilities and specific action to be taken when a bomb incident or bomb threat occurs is called A. Bomb threat plan C. Support unit C.rkmfiles. Kidnap for Ransom 93. the teams under the support unit are under the control of the ground commander. In crisis management. Traumatic syndrome C. family B. Holmshock syndrome B. Which is responsible for the collection and processing of all information needed by the on – scene commander? A. Chief Negotiator B. barangay 91. Withdrawal syndrome D. Contingency plan 95. Negotiation unit D. Security element B.net 193 . Hijacking B. What is known to be the oldest but commonly used terrorist tactic where target are often police. none of these www. military officials or political features? A. Intelligence team 92. What do you call the phenomenon where a hostage begins to identify his captor and give his sympathy to his own hostage taker? A. community D. Drill D. Assassination C. Fire fighting team D. society C. The one who makes complete estimate of the crisis situation and plans his courses of actions upon arrival at the incident area while negotiation is in progress is the A. Floor plan B. Tactical Commander C. What model of insurgency does the New People’s Army in the Philippines is employing? A. selfishness B. In Stockholm syndrome. some of the causes why a hostage becomes cooperative with the hostage taker is due to A. personal grudge C. Panic C. Reactive Phase C. which is most contagious on human emotion? A.End of Set Two - www. personal affection D. Communist Model B. Proactive Crisis Management B. Dementia Praecox 97.96. None of these . Performance Stage D. What stage is the performance of the crisis management plan when a crisis situation occurs? A. Socialist Model C. organization and coordination and control in response to an anticipated future crisis occurrence is called A. The stage of advance planning. Democratic Model D. Prediction D. Among the following. None of these 100. personal interest 98. Reaction Phase 99. Fear B. Pro-active Phase B. Reactive Crisis Management C.rkmfiles.net 194 . Worry D. W Sheldon B. 3. Some of these questions were selected from the First series and the Second series of MY QUIZZER IN CRIMINOLOGY. A. R. Criminal Sociology www. MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Fear D. Mark only one answer for each item by marking the box corresponding to the letter of your choice on the answer sheet provided. . Neurotic Behavior The term white. Quinney C. Durkheim D. SET ONE His key ideas are concentrated on the principle of “Survival of the Fittest” as a behavioral science. C. E. none of these The term use to refer to the adverse psychological impacts of rape on rape victims who continue to suffer long after the incident. Sutherland B. R Merton C.ASSORTED QUESTIONS Enhance more your mind by going over these jumbled questions. Ivan Nye What is means of “R” in the criminal formula? A. 1 only. Rape Trauma Syndrome C. ================================================================= INSTRUCTION: Select the correct answer for each of the following questions. E Sutherland D. E.net 195 2. Sexual Anxiety B. A. 5. STRICTLY NO ERASURES ALLOWED.collar crime was coined by A. 4. Total Situation B. One of its aspect is the study of crime focused on the group of people and society which is known today as: A. Criminal Tendency C.rkmfiles. He advocated the “Somatotyping Theory”. These questions are extracted from the six areas of study in criminology specifically prepared as a BONUS review pointer. Temperament D. Use pencil no. Criminal Psychology B. Darwin The field of criminology is a multi-disciplinary science. C Goring 7.C. This means the progress of criminology is concordant with the advancement of other sciences that has been applied to it. C Lombroso B. C Darwin D. None of these The theory in criminology. C Beccaria C. Dynamic B. Police 11. which maintains that a person commits crime or behaves criminally mainly because he or she is being possessed by evil spirits or something of natural force that controls his/her behavior is called: A. All of these The Italian leader of the positivist school of criminology. Progressive D. its study must be considered a part of social science. was: A. Criminal Psychiatry D. All of these Criminology changes as social condition changes. Penalty B. who was criticized for his methodology and his attention to the biological characteristics of offenders. The Latin term POENA means: A. Excellent C. 9. Punishment D. A. Lavons 12. Pain C. Applied science B. Social Science C. Demonological Theory C. public execution www. Gaols B. This means that criminology is _____. Criminal Etiology 6. Devine Will Theory B. A. Former warship used to house to house prisoners in the 18th and 19th C were called: A. This means that criminology is __. 10.rkmfiles. Hulks D. Classical Theory D. Public humiliation or public exhibition also mean: A. Galleys C. Natural Science D. In as much as crime is a societal creation and that it exist in a society.net 196 . 8. facilities. which have significance in criminal investigation are called __. and techniques concerned with the investigation. social degradation C. Burgundian Code C. Code of Draco 16. procedures. custody. The theory in penal science which maintains that punishment gives lesson to the offender and the would be criminals is called: A. Ballista B. Reformations D. Weapons B. This is an ancient form of punishment called: A. 12 Tables B. Forensic D. A. Forensic Ballistics 18. confinement. A. comparison and identification of weapons alleged to have been used in the commission of a crime referred to ___. The generic term that includes all government agencies. programs. Banishment C. personnel. Transportation D. Exile B.rkmfiles. banishment D. Penology C. which was incorporated into the Justinian Code. Criminal Justice D. Incapacitation C. public safety 15. Hammurabic Code D. or treatment of alleged offenders refers to: A. intake. The science. Criminal Evidence www. which deals with the study. Those that are left behind by the criminal perpetrator in the scene of the crime. Ballistica C. the base pillar 17. public trial 14. One of the following represents the earliest codification of the Roman law. public trial 13. a criminal may be sent away from a place carried out by prohibition to coming against a specified territory.net 197 . Deterrence B. During the 16th up to the 18th century. Correction B. A.B. supervision. One thing B. Album 22. Interrogation D. Two Things D. Blue collar crime 23. Police works B. This is known as ___. Professional Organization C. Crime fruits 19. tool marks. The study of physical evidences such as blood. Police File B. Omerta B. Instrumentation D. A. A. What is the literal meaning of the term Cosa Nostra? A. Triad C. Mafioso www. Silencer D.C. 5th estate 24. Omerta C.rkmfiles. A. bloodstains. All of these 21. The strict code of conduct that governs the behavior of the Mafia members is called ___.net 198 . etc. One of the following is a vital investigative tool that has helped in the reconstruction of crime and the identity of suspects as well as victims because it is a factual and accurate record of the crime. fingerprints. Photography C. A. Individual File D. White collar crime D. Investigation C. Criminalistics B. Police Science 20. A. Mug File C. It refers to the collection of photographs of known criminals and their identities that is placed together in one file. Crime Scene Investigation D. through a laboratory work refers to ___. Organized crime B. The criminal activity by an enduring structure or organization developed and devoted primarily to the pursuit of profits through illegal means commonly known as ___. Heroin C. thinner. The hallucinogenic alkaloid from a small Mexican mushroom used by Mexican Indians to induce nausea and muscular relaxation is called: A. Deliriants C. STP C. The group of drugs that are considered to be mind altering and gives the general effect of mood distortion are generally called A. DMT D. Inhalants D. What do you call the most powerful natural stimulant? A. kerosene. Solvents B. Cocaine is a stimulant drug. Erythroxylon coca B. Narcotic C. Sedatives B. All of these 27. Cocaine Hydrochloride www. Raw opium C.net 199 . Solvent D. Stimulants B. What opium preparation is combined with camphor to produce a household remedy for diarrhea and abdominal pain? A. Drugs like glue. Paregoric D. Depressant 28.rkmfiles. Hypnotic C. gasoline. LSD is a A. Uppers C. Hallucinogens D. paint. are called: A. Hallucinogen B. The group of drugs that when introduced into the system of the body can produce mental alertness and wakefulness A. ether. etc.25. All of these 30. Ibogaine 31. Granulated opium 29. Tranquillizers 26. Psilocybin B. Beta Eucaine D. Speeds D. Tincture of opium B. 32. These crimes are also called moral offenses or vice. Mescaline B. Many of these crimes generally refer to Public Order Crimes – an offense that is consensual and lacks a complaining participant. Drug Addiction D. The groups of crimes categorized as violent crimes (Index crimes) and property crimes (Non Index crimes) are called ___. Felony D. Psilocybin 35. “Cold Turkey” 36. It is also otherwise known as: A. It is defined as a crime where a person of respectability and high social status in the course of his or her occupation commits the criminal act. Phencyclidine D. Physical dependence C. Consensual crimes www. Non-conventional Crimes C.net 200 . Psychological dependence B. What drug is known as the “assassins of the youth”? A. Marijuana D. In acute cases withdrawal of drugs causes serious physical illness also called abstinence syndrome. Offense 38. Heroin B. Cocaine C.rkmfiles. A. Heroin C. Which of the following is a drug known in the street as “angel dust” A. Cocaine 33. Shabu 34. White collar crime 37. A. What is the most important constituent of opium? A. Labor Crimes B. A. Codeine D. Victimless crimes B. Diethyltryptamine C. Organized Crimes C. High Collar crimes D. Morphine B. Conventional crimes B. legal act B. enacted by legitimate authority for the common observance and benefit. One under the custody of lawful authority by reason of criminal sentence is __. Confinement C. Neo Classical School D. Crime C. Law D. Any act committed or omitted in violation of a public law forbidding or commanding it. Criminal C. A & B only 39. Classical Theory C. just.rkmfiles. Reformation D. Victim 45. Sexual crimes D. A. Judge D. A. A. The theory in which reformation is based upon. The so called “forgotten person” in the criminal justice process. on the ground that the criminal is a sick person. Penitentiary generally refers to A. City Ordinance C. The term used to refer to the putting of a person to jail or prison by reason of service of sentence. Imprisonment B.net 201 . A. obligatory. A rule of conduct. Regulation B. All of these 41. A. Positivist Theory B. Inmate C. Prison B. Poena D. Punishment 43. Penal Colony D. Detainee D. Sociological Theory 42. All of these www. Prisoner B. A. All of these 40. Place of Confinement C. Police B. Lawful Act 44.C. A system of coordinated activities. Unity of Direction www. Dura lex sed lex C. Police planning D. Police Administration D. Informal Organizations C. Police Administration D. Nullum Crimen B. Formal Organizations B. It is the Latin term referring to "caught in the act" of performing a crime. all of these 47. Informal Organizations C. group of people. Police Organization C. A. A. None of the above 50. Police Leadership C. Information C. passions and activities of individuals is referred to as: A. authority and leadership and cooperation towards a goal is called A. Formal Organizations B. An indefinite and unstructured organization that has no definite subdivision and comprised of unconscious group feelings.rkmfiles. Intelligence B. The extent to which an authority is concentrated or dispersed is called: A. Police Administration 51. Organizational Structure D. Community relation B. All of the above 49. The knowledge acquired by the investigator from various sources.net 202 . Police Management B. The study of the processes and conditions of the Law Enforcement pillar that is also called “police in action”: A. Community Policing 52. The ability of police administrators in winning support for departmental programs from people with in the department as well as the citizens is called: A. Ignorancia lex excusat D. none of these 48.46. Surveillance D. Line and Staff Organization B. including Dr. Directing D. A theory underlying the system of our criminal law. Planning 58. The staff specialist or unit in line organization that provides service knowledge is known as: A. Centralization C.net 203 . Unity of Command C. The principle of organization that results from the division of force into separate units to perform individual task is called A.B. Scalar of Chain D. Line and Staff Organization B.rkmfiles. Delegation of Authority 54. Punitive theory D. The principle of organization suggesting that communication should ordinarily go upward and downward through establish channels in the hierarchy is A. that crime is considered as essentially asocial and natural phenomenon. Juristic or classical theory B. Positivist or realistic theory C. Functional Organization C. A type of organizational structure in which quick decisions are made because of direct line authority and discipline is easily administered is called: A. Non. Chain of Command C. Line Organization D. Staffing B. Line Organization D. Functional and Staff Organization 57. Organizational Structure D. Unity of Command 53. A. Structural Organization 56. Chain of Command B. All of the above 55.punitive theory www. The placement of subordinate into the position for which their capabilities best fit them is referred to as: A. Specialization B. Span of Control D. of which Rafael Garafalo and Enrico Ferri. Organizing C. Cesare Lombroso. Functional Organization C. were the greatest exponents. except in cases where they favor the accused charged with felony and who are not habitual criminals. A. Felonies C. Frustrated felony B. Attempted felony 63. Felony D. Felony D. A. Are those acts and omissions committed not only by means of deceit. A. particularly against their chastity. where penal laws do not have retroactive effect. Attempted felony C. Territorial D. Infractions 62. Are those crimes committed against the society which produce direct damage or prejudice common to all its members. Public crimes C. but which do not produce danger or prejudice common to other members of society. Is committed whenever the offender commences the commission of a crime directly by overt acts but does not perform all the acts of execution which should produce the felony as a consequence by reason of some cause or accident other than his own spontaneous desistance. Exempting circumstances D. A. Justifying circumstances B.59. All of the foregoing 60. Are those crimes committed against individuals. A. Private crimes B. General C.net 204 . but also by means of fault and are punishable by law. Private crimes B. Retrospective B. Consummated felony D. Public crimes C.rkmfiles. Felony www. Infractions 61. One of the characteristics of criminal law. net 205 . Middle East. 1972 D.rkmfiles. Rush C. 2002 B. RA 6975. The drug heroin was a chemically synthesized of A. The Golden Crescent 68. Dangerous Drugs Act of 1972. Comprehensive Dangerous Drugs Act which took effect on July 4. Dangerous Drugs Act of 2002 which on July 4. High D. What is the term used to describe the intoxicating effect of a drug in the lingo of the drug users? A. Opium Juice C. Stoned B. RA 9165. RA 6975. RA 6425. The drug addict who shows many “tracks” from injection of hypodermic needles is mostly addicted to: A. heroin www. Morphine B. South East Asia B. South America C. Middle East D. which is correct? A. 2002 C.64. 2002 of 2002 of 2002 effect on took effect 65. The Golden Triangle is for the Chinese Triad.Europe-U. South West Asia 69. Comprehensive Dangerous Drugs Act which took effect on June 7. liquid amphetamine B. Peru-Uruguay-Panama-Columbia B. Codeine D. What part of the globe is the principal source of all forms of cocaine? A. Medellin Cartel D. Columbia and Peru is for: A. took March 2.S D. YAKUZA 70. La Cosa Nostra B. From among the following. Trip 66. The Golden Triangle C. Cammora C. Coca paste 67. What group of countries where the first important drug traffic route was organized from drug discovery up to marketing? A. Misunderstanding between motorist and traffic officers C. usurpation 76. stomach cancer B. A drug abuser. Is that which is not excluded by the law as tending to prove a fact in issue A. Cross traffic accidents B.rkmfiles. head aches and body pains C. tends to develop low resistance and becomes susceptible to various infections such as: A. patient himself 73. loss of appetite 75. trained psychologist B. doctors or physicians C. trespassing to dwelling C. When the drug dependent develops changes in the normal functioning of the brain that can be manifested in undesirable conditions. loss of contact with reality D. The drug addict or user generally acquires the drug habit because of being: A. he suffers from mental invalid. laboratory results D. Accidents of confusion D. freebase cocaine 71. Any private person who shall enter the dwelling of another against the will of the latter A. mental deterioration due to drug addiction B. because of his use of unsterilized paraphernalia. socially maladjusted D. communicable diseases D. Which of the following types of accident is most decreased by the installation of traffic light? A. Mental invalid in the context of drug abuse means: A. powerless and less self control B. the best information is taken from: A. material evidence B. distortion of sensory perception 74. In knowing the history of drug taking of a person. loss of will power to quit from drug use C. emotionally unstable C. relevant evidence www. Accidents of decision of right of way 77. shabu D. light threats D.C. none of these B.net 206 . all of these 72. The use of one or more electrical appliances or devices which draw or consume electrical current beyond the designed capacity of the existing electrical system A. secret activity D. A clandestine operation in a police parlance means: A. The adjudication by the court that the defendant is guilty or is not guilty of the offense charged and the imposition of the penalty provided by law on the defendant who pleads or is found guilty thereof A. jumper C. the experienced police officer A. stubborn 82. self-closing door B. When people are considered as source of information. judgment B. concentrates all his efforts to acquire informants only from criminal types 81. recognizes that persons from all walks of life represent potential investigative resources B. false informant C. direct evidence D. restricts his efforts to members of the departments D. angry C. overloading D. The method of determining and finding the best way to remedy the specific cause or causes of the complaint or grievance refers to _____.C. Macho means A. competent evidence 78. covert intelligence B. develops his contracts only with law abiding citizens C. cross examination C. overt intelligence www.rkmfiles. information D. criminal procedure 80. surveillance C. investigation procedure B.net 207 . assertive B. heroic D. A. admission 83. oxidizing material 79. grievance procedure D. fire trap 89. sprinkle evidence B. immediately collect it and always send it to the crime laboratory for scientific examination D. standpipe system 86. A wall designated to prevent the spread of fire having a fire resistance rating of not less than four hours with sufficient structural stability to remain standing even if construction on either side collapses under the fire conditions. as well as for the base to the top of the building is called A. flash point D. sentence 87. pick it up for closer examine taking care not to jar it. When an investigator finds a tool a the crime scene.rkmfiles.84. post wall D.net 208 . Compare the cutting edge of the tool with the impressions to determine if this was the tool used in the crime. Barbiturates www. A. C. Wood rack B. fire wall C. A. The presence of the symptom of alcohol intoxication with out smell of alcoholic breath is a sign that the suspected person is under the influence of: A. wait until the crime scene has been sketched or photographed and measurements taken before he collects the evidence 88. Amphetamine drug B. fatal accident C. non-fatal injury accident B. verb C. property damage accident 85. A word or group of words that express a complete thought. vertical shaft C. traffic law enforcer D. B. An enclosed vertical space of passage that extends from the floor to floor. subject D. he should first of all: A. adverb B. Any motor vehicle accident that result in injuries other than fatal to one or more persons. A. This may cause to: A. The burning of a small quantity of the suspected substance and determining the odor or smell having similar to burnt banana leaves or has a sweetish odor is a field test that can reveal the drug ___. or by synthesis from ecgoine and its derivatives is called: A. What kind of drug examination is made during the initial investigation conducted by the first responding officers? A. Opium C. wakefulness 92. “Bennies” and “dexies” are for amphetamines. Laboratory Analysis C.C. dependence to family resources D. Marijuana B. In a state of agitation and dullness of the mind as a result of drug.net 209 . Codeine D.rkmfiles. Peyote Cactus 93. The drug that is obtained from the alkaloid of the leaves of the Erythorxylon coca and the other species of Erthroxlon Linne. dilation of pupils B. A. all of these www. Heroin B. Coca leaves D. Field Testing B. Deliriants 95. Demerol B. the dependent becomes careless and losses concentration on his job. A. except: A. Cocaine 94. sudden burst of laughter C. Sodium Carbonate C. accident in the home B. Color Reaction Testing D. Narcotics 90. Hallucinogens D. Barbiturates D. Withdrawn forgetfulness 91. accident at work C. “red devils” and “double trouble are for ___. Sulfates C. Drugs that are categorized as uppers or speeds can give the following symptoms of abuse. increasingly inactive D. Shabu B. Cocaine C.End of Set One - www. Brewery D. Needle marks/tracks B. Opium derivatives D.96. Asphyxiation C. Symone’s test is for: A. capsule drugs C. Cyanosis C. Duquenois-Levine test is for marijuana. Ethylene . Methyl Alcohol B. Hematoma 99. Asphyxia D. What is called the “visual evidence” in drug related cases? A. Ethyl Alcohol C.rkmfiles. in narcotic death investigation. spoon or bottle top “cookies” and tinfoil packet reveals that the drug being administered are: A. The body sign.net 210 .What kind of alcohol is used in alcoholic drinks? A. Skin diseases D. marijuana leaves 98. tourniquet. of bluish discoloration of the face and or fingernails due to insufficient oxygenation of the blood caused by increase in carbon dioxide in the body is called: A. Petechial hemorrhage B. Amphetamine 97. Internal body signs 100. tablet drugs B. The presence of drug paraphernalia at the drug scene in the form of syringe and needle. liquid drugs D. 4. 5. and wait for violators. STRICTLY NO ERASURES ALLOWED. but not operated upon rails. www. SET TWO Intoxication when considered under the law is considered A. for several reasons. Carbon Monoxide C. Carbon Dioxide D. Motor vehicles 2. MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. 1 only.net 211 . Tricycle D. Cruise all the assigned area but give extra attention to the intersection Every device which is self-propelled and every vehicle which is propelled by electric power obtained from overhead trolley wires. Nicotiana Tabacum C. what is the scientific name of the tobacco plant? A. Anti social Behavior In substance abuse. B. Park your motorcycle at the center of intersection to caution motorist C. Nicotino Tabakumo B. A. Mark only one answer for each item by marking the box corresponding to the letter of your choice on the answer sheet provided. in plain view. Alternative Circumstance B. Tar B. Park near the intersection. The Police unit assignment to the area should. Nikotiano Tabaku D. Delinquent act D. Bicycle C. 3. Use pencil no. has more traffic accidents than any other part in the area. Nicotine A certain intersection. A. Tabaku Nicotino What is the addictive substance or chemical contained in tobacco cigarettes? A. Maladaptive Behavior C. more or less hidden from view D. Park near the intersection. Skating B.rkmfiles.INSTRUCTION: Select the correct answer for each of the following questions. Complaint C. 9. Re-assignment D. 10. Provable D. Police blotter D. Hypothetical means A. 8.net 212 . Preservation of evidence D. Deposition B. Exaggerated C. Evaluation of evidence C. Temporary B. Information www. Abatement It is the investigator’s responsibility to insure that every precaution is exercised to preserve the evidence. A. What is the sworn written statement charging a person with an offence. shall enter a dwelling against the will of the owner thereof is committing: A.rkmfiles. Illegal entry D. subscribed by the offended party. Abatement Any act that would remove or naturalized a fire hazard A.6. Releasing evidence 7. any peace officer or other employee of the government or government institution in change of the enforcement or execution of the law violated? A. Violation of domicile C. Substitution B. Legal entry B. Ordeal 11. Combustion C. Allotment B. Tagging of evidence B. This is the principle of trial in __. Assumed A public officer or employee when NOT being authorized by judicial order. Absentia C. Distillation D. A. Trial is allowed only after arrangement and the accused may waive his right to appear at the trial except when his presence is required for purposes of identification. Department of Justice B. interrogate the witnesses B. A. greater safety to pedestrians and motorist is effected D.rkmfiles. Peace and Order council C. traffic management C. motorist are discourage from “jumping signals” B. The main reason why both traffic officers and signal lights are used on some intersection is that A. traffic can be kept moving at a faster rate C. engage in the search for traces left by the search for traces left by the criminal C. the right to oppose whatever accusation or him based on his constitutional right D. colors or other gadgets EXCEPT signs set into the surface or applied upon or attached to the pavement or curbing officially place for the purpose of regulating traffic is called _____ A.net 213 . warning signs B. the right to remain silent. patterns. the right to oppose whatever the accusation on him B. an officer can stop and start as necessity demands 15. the right to counsel. Relevancy of evidence 13. Municipal Government 16. Real evidence B. remove of evidence which may prove importance to the case D. preserving the site of the crime in the same physical condition as it was left by the perpetrator 14. Admissibility of evidence D. the right to plea guilty and not guilty C. The fundamental responsibility of the officer in charge of protecting the crime scene is to: A. words. Evidence is admissible when it is relevant to the issue and is not excluded by the rules on A. Court D.12. the right to be informed of the nature of the accusation www. It is the coordinating machinery in the operation of the criminal justice system. traffic engineering D. A person undergoing criminal investigation enjoys his three constitutional rights such as A. All lines. Secondary evidence C. pavement marking 17. Fire alerting system D. venue www. a consummated felony D.rkmfiles. pop pills 21. a red background and white symbols and black border C. reefers D. Had it not been the timely medical attendance. The authority of the court to take cognizance of a case in the first instance is known as: A. sticks B. Prohibitive traffic signs and restrictive traffic signs shall have A. The primary purpose of bail is A. The ____ shall be conducted as a pre-requisite to grant permits and/or license by local governments or other government agencies. jurisdiction D. a frustrated felony 19. delegated jurisdiction 20. appellate jurisdiction C. a physical injury B. action C. Fire protection assembly C. to protect the accused rights B. white background with black symbols and red border D. “A” stabbed “B”.net 214 . to release the accused 22. This is a case of A. to punish the accused for the crime D. knocks– out drops C. to keep the accused in jail until trial C. “B” would have died. an attempted felony C. territory B. Fire service 24. The place of trial for a criminal action is cited A. Fire safety inspection B. “A” brought “B” to a hospital for medical treatment. A. blue background and white symbols B.18. original jurisdiction B. Amphetamine is representative of good class of stimulant known as A. general jurisdiction D. green background with white and black symbols 23. Intervention of the offended party in the criminal action is not allowed in the following instances EXCEPT: A. when he has waived the civil action 28. when he ahs expressly reserved the right to institute the civil action separately D. A.net 215 . power of self-control C. light C. windshield 26. A. local action B. local crimes C. 60. A. tracing evidence 29. when he has file the civil action ahead of the criminal C. perseverance D. associative evidence C. transitory action www. physical evidence B. One in which all the ingredients of the offense are committed in one place. A. municipality or thickly populated district or barrio. wiper B. in general assist in the prosecution of this criminal. muffler D. corpus delicti D. when he has not waived the civil action B. none of these D. integrity 27. Motor vehicle propelled by an internal combustion engine shall be equipped with a ____ and said motor vehicle passes through a street of any city. logical mind B.rkmfiles. Articles and material which are found in connection with the investigation and which aid in establishing the identify of the perpetrator or the circumstances under which the crime was committed or which. Investigator must be patient to obtain accurate and complete information especially with uncooperative subjects.25. his opinion may influence the investigator assigned to the case B. Assume that a dead body has been discovered on the street and being the only police officer around. Under these circumstances the traffic police officer should. several onlookers are gathered.30. An instance that may cause fires from the heat accumulated from the rolling. it essential that a police office should refrain from expressing his opinion as to the probable cause of death because. A. As a rule. A traffic police officer stationed the route of a parade has been ordered by his superior to allow no cars to cross the route. sliding or friction in machinery or between two hard surfaces. at least one of which is usually a metal is called. nuclear fission B. ask the driver to wait until the traffic police officer contact his superior and obtains decisions B. conduction C. overheating of machine C. double crosser informants B. Radiation 33. A. hold up the ambulance in accordance with the superior’s order D.net 216 . A. no useful purpose will be served C. mercenary informants 34. you have been called upon by a passersby to proceed to the scene upon arriving at the scene. Method of heat transfer by direct contact A. an ambulance driver on an emergency run attempts to drive his ambulance across the route while the parade is passing. false informants C. friction heat D. The desire to give information as an excuse to talk to the police in order to get more information from them than he gives. heat from arching 32. A. stop the parade long enough to permit the ambulance to cross the street C. convection D.rkmfiles. self aggrandizing D. static electricity B. the killer may overhead your conclusion www. direct the ambulance driver to the shortest detour which will add at least then minutes to run 31. While the parade is in progress. he do not know the cause of the death 35.D. The first action taken by a traffic unit to escape from collision course or otherwise avoid a hazard A. mercenary informants D. diction 39. A. anonymous informant 37. final position 36. and his purpose of informing the police is to eliminate rival or competition. vocabulary D.net 217 . bunch of key www. The correct choice of word selecting the exact precise objective words to convey as meaning A. An informant who gives information to the police/investigator. The primary job of an investigator is to determine whether a crime has been committed in order to determine such he must have knowledge of the so called cardinal question of investigation and there are ____ cardinals of investigation. self aggrandizing informant C. point of possible perception C. diction 40. A number representing the resistance to sliding of two surfaces in contract is known as: A. Instrument used to open and close a fire hydrant A. traffic jam C. punctuation C. vocabulary D. six B. hydrant key B. attribute D. three C. point of no escape D. coefficient of friction B. key board D. A. kilowatts C. state of evasive action B.rkmfiles. contract damage 38. rival-elimination informant B. exclamation point B. RA 4864 D. the maximum tenure of the PNP Regional Director is . 8 years 47. By filling a complaint with the chief of Police in the municipality D. same traffic violations are caused by negligence D. violations must be punished 43. By filling a complaint with the fiscal for preliminary investigation 42. The former pointed his gun to the latter. 4 years B.41.net 218 . consummated and frustrated D. the traffic police officers should be guided foremost by the consideration that A. This is an example of: A. 6 years C. prosecution is instituted A. A. Bilious means A. 4 years B. RA 6141 46. “A” wanted to kill “C”. puffed out C. A. RA 6040 C. consummated felony 45. frustrated felony B. With respect to minor traffic violations.rkmfiles. For offense falling under the jurisdiction of Municipal Trial Courts and Municipal Circuit trial courts. 6 years C. 5 years D. RA 2260 B. By filing a complaint directly with the court C. The maximum tenure of office of the Chief of PNP or the Director General of the PNP is. A. the gun jammed and “C” manage to escape. some traffic violation are intended B. irritable 44. As “A” pressed the trigger. the aim is to discourage violations C. The act that provides the National Police Commission to conduct Police examination is. By filling a compliant with the Regional Trial Court B. In the Attrition System of the PNP. wealthy B. attempted felony C. 5 years www. bad tempered D. the Latin term for criminal intent? Mens Rea Magna Culpa Inflagrante Delicto Mala Vise 50. A. special operating procedures C.D. management C. that is includes the procedures and the duties of dispatcher. Search and Seizure 49. headquarters procedures B. Standard operating procedures that is intended to be used in all situations of all kinds. Preliminary conference C. that considers plans for the operations of special divisions like. matron and other personnel concerned which may be reflected in the duty manual. traffic. characteristics of plans 52. What is A. Operational plans D. B. Standard operating procedures. Policies or procedures B. extra-office plans www. vice. administration 51. jailer. A type of plans. and juvenile delinquency control. special operating procedures C. planning D.rkmfiles. Inquest proceeding B. D. C. 9 years 48. In simple sense.net 219 . patrol. Tactical plans C. operational plans 53. headquarters procedures B. it is in essence. and shall be outlines as a guide to officers and men in the field. it is an act of deciding in advance on what is to be done and how it is to be accomplished. A. preparations for action. Preliminary investigation D. A. field procedures D. A. What should be conducted in order to determine whether a case falls under the jurisdiction of the regional Trial Court? A. field procedures D. Operations B. A type of plan that includes those procedures for coping with specific situations at known locations. extra-office plans D. collecting all pertinent facts B. that is necessary in order to know whether a correct alternative was chosen.rkmfiles. selecting the most appropriate alternative C. developing alternative plans 57. a careful study and evaluation shall be made. selling the plan 59. a situation must exit for which something must and can be done. A. developing alternative plans C. A. etc. that states that no attempt shall be made to develop a plan until all facts relating to it have been gathered. analyzing the facts D. arranging for the execution of the plan C. A step in planning. clarifying the problems D. whether or not the plan is correct. management of plans B. analyzing the facts C. operational plans C. management of personnel and material and in the procurement and disbursement of money. selecting the most appropriate alternative 58. collecting all pertinent facts B. developing the facts D. extra-office plans D. A step in planning. understanding both records and its possible solution. which phase was poorly implemented. operational plans 55. Headquarters of the PNP. developing alternative plans B. One step in planning. this provides the basis from which a plan or plans are evolved. A. management plans C. A. Of the following steps in planning. A plan that includes the mapping out in advance all operations involved in the organization.net 220 . that calls for identification of the problem. such plans for dealing with an attack against building with alarm systems and an attack against. A.54. A. tactical plans B. one which after all the data have been gathered. evaluating the effectiveness of the plan B. characteristics of plans 56. and whether additional planning may be necessary. selecting the most appropriate alternative www. rkmfiles. the suppression of criminal activities. Theft and Robbery Division C. permit the promote issuance of new plate B. What activity requires the duty of a superior officer of any unit of the Philippine National Police and its units subordinates to establish rapport or good relationship with other law enforcement agencies of the government? A. prevent cards from being stolen C. Juvenile Delinquency Control Division 62. and performing necessary services and inspections is A. prevent traffic accidents and expedite the flow of traffic 64. motor vehicle and victim C. Business – like Activity C. detain any person found using or attempting to use any of these plates. victim and traffic way D. keep record of all outstanding license plate in use D. Patrol Force D. It is customary for the police to keep records of lost or stolen automobile license plates. Socialization 61.D.net 221 . control the speed limited in densely populated areas D. Police Executive Training B. The division that shall accomplish the primary responsibility of safeguarding the community through protection of persons and property. motor vehicles and traffic way B. The traffic accident investigator is chiefly concerned with accidents that involves one or both of the elements namely A. Coordination and Cooperation D. The best reason for this practice is to A. keep traffic moving at a steady rate to avoid bottlenecks C. One of the following statements that best indicates the main purpose of traffic law enforcement is A. the enforcement of laws and ordinances and regulations of conduct. the apprehension of criminals. reduce traffic by punishing violators of traffic rules B. victim and traffic unit 63. selling the plan 60. Traffic Division B. www. The optional retirement for officers and new officers of the police service is A.65. the driver under the influence of liquor C. vehicle has break failure 68. 15 years B. hole on the road pavement B. look for the “key event” that cause the accident 66. which temporarily deprives an officer from the privilege of performing his duty. Retirement C.net 222 . The general principle of traffic accident investigation is to A. point of impact D. Public Complaint C. consider violation as primary causes and any other factors as secondary causes C. Resignation D. is referred to as: A. 25 years C. The nature of complaint against any PNP member is called A. 30 years D. a shifting emphasis on different types of violations D. regard any unfavorable factor existing immediately prior to the accident as a cause D. The basic principle behind selective enforcement in traffic control is A. a warning rather than a citation will act as preventive measure for future violation 67. which of the following evidence will show how the accident happened? A. Citizen’s Complaint D.rkmfiles. Individual Complaint B. Dismissal B. Administrative Complaint 70. The consequence of an act. In the examination of the scene of accident. concentration of enforcement activities at peak traffic hours C. selection of geographical areas for strict enforcement B. 20 years 69. consider road conditions as limiting conditions rather than as causes KVB B. Suspension www. Ex-officio Commissioner D.71. The agency of the government responsible for the administration of police entrance and promotional examination is the A. Demotion D. Personnel Administration Service B. NAPOLCOM B. The NAPOLCOM shall be composed of the offices of Chairperson. The term of office of the four regular and full-time Commissioners of the NAPOLCOM is A. Dismissal C. CHED 76. NAPOLCOM C. Complaints against personnel of the Internal Affairs Office shall be brought to the A. PNPA D. The PNP shall be organized to ensure accountability and uprightness in the police exercise of discretion as well as to achieve A.net 223 . 5 years C. Reformation and rehabilitation B. Organization and Administration D. AWOL 73. Efficiency and effectiveness C. People’s Law Enforcement Board 72. 9 years 74. Inspector’s Office 77. Ex-officio Chairman B. None of the above www. Internal Affairs Service C. Secretary C.officio Chairperson 75. Planning and Research Service C. 6 years B. The staff service of the NAPOLCOM who renders legal opinion arising from the administration of the PNP is referred to as A. Civil Service Commission B. Commissioners and one – A. Retirement B. The method of separation from the police service after completing the required age for length of service is called A. PLEB D.rkmfiles. Ex. 4 years D. Legal Affairs Service D. President 81.net 224 . 20 yrs B. Operational Supervision www. 18 months D. The reorganization of the PNP is made by the NAPOLCOM who shall conduct management audit. Chief of the PNP B. Anybody who will enter the PNP service with out a baccalaureate degree shall be given a maximum period of A. less than 25 but not more than 32 years of age D. 9 years 80. none of these 84. 5 years to comply with the education qualification D. None of the above 79. The ex-officio chairman of the NAPOLCOM is the A. not below 20 nor over 35 years of age C. crime prevention activities and traffic control in accordance with the rules and regulations promulgated by the Commission is A. 6 years D. 3 years to comply with the education qualification B. 5 years C. Secretary of DILG C. Under RA 8551 any PNP personnel who has not been promoted for a continuous service shall be retired or separated if the said period of non promotion gained with in: A. 6 years to comply with the education qualification 83. Commissioner from the civilian sector D.rkmfiles. C/PNP D. not below 25 nor over 35 years of age B.78. 10 yrs C. The required age for the grant of waiver of age requirement for initial appointment in the PNP is A. Congress C. Planning C. 4 years to comply with the education qualification C. Employment B. The power to direct or oversee the day to day functions of police investigation of crime. DILG Secretary B. 4 years B. more than 22 but less than 32 years of age 82. The four regulars and fulltime Commissioners shall appointed for a term of A. and prepare a proposed reorganization plan to be approved by A. are automatically deputized as representatives of the A. adverb D. verbs www. arrest can be effected even without a warrant D. A.rkmfiles. What is missing in the sentence? _____.D. since they show whether the sentence is clear or has a doubtful meaning. adjective “The investigator is 91. Master Sergeant in the Military rank B. All of the above 87. Governors and mayors. In arresting the traffic violator or when it involved arrest due to traffic violation. the following procedures are followed except: A. impose the probable penalty that might be imposed 90. upon having been elected and having qualified as such.” A. punctuations C. if the person is under the imminent danger 89. bring the suspect before the court to answer a charge of violation D. bringing the person to your custody C. None of the above 86. A person can escape from the scene of the accident on one of the following ground: A. Captain in the Military rank C. This statement is part of the: A. he/she should live a decent and virtuous life to serve as an example to others. Police Officer’s Creed D. Policeman’s Code C. detention of the arrested person may take place C. bring the suspended person before the court B. offense committed is serious B. verb C. As a police officer. subject B. noun B. None of the above 88. PNP Code of Covenant B.net 225 . The rank of a Senior Police Officer IV is equivalent to: A. Deployment 85. NAPOLCOM B. PLEB D. Lieutenant in the Military rank D. They are necessary in the sentence. DND C. A. evidence were gathered and preserved for the prosecution of the case. Written confirmation 97. A police report that carries lies or half truth statements is still a police report. It explains best what a police report is. Adverbs are modifiers. A. D. police investigator was summoned to appear in court. He gave a blow-out to his friends. Judge to handle the case was already appointed. Three months passed and he was still receiving the same salary. C. avoid repetitions of nouns by using A. B. were D.net 226 . was C. Special order C. “I am not as good today. A police report can be submitted as time allows.D. statements taken were corroborated by witnesses C.” A. This statement is incorrect. exact narrations of facts C. except A. A final police report can only be submitted. am B. a proper noun 96. on the strength of his recommendation. and. B. police records D. a verb B. as I _____yesterday. daily operational occurrences B. a pronoun C. and the case considered closed and solved when suspect was arrested and charged. paragraphs 92. 93. D. In police technical writing. a common noun D. witnesses are willing to testify in court. reaffirming what took place 94.rkmfiles. Supply the correct form of verb. Accurateness of a police report can be based partly on the use of our senses. www. did 95. SPO1 Matiyaga was promoted to the next rank by his Commanding Officer. Approval by his CO D. Memorandum B. What form of communication is missing? A. .net 227 . Police reports make police investigators efficient in their jobs.deer. C. die – dye. buy – by. brake – break. All statements are incorrect. homonyms D. Police reports likewise serve as a gauge for good police performance.. These words are _____ e. and dear. phrases 100. Police reports can be used for future reference.g. 99. vocabularies B. verbs are modifiers C. sometimes report writers should result to one’s opinion. keeping an open mind in reporting. except A. Police reports can serve as raw materials from which record systems can be adopted. except A. D. B. bail – bale.End of Set Two - www.These statements are correct. A.98. makes the report fair D.rkmfiles. They are similar in sound but different in meaning and spelling. antonyms C. the relevance of the police report depends on how it relays the exclusive objective B. the size and shape of the propellant grains. Propulsion Rate www. 3. Repulsion D. STRICTLY NO ERASURES ALLOWED. Catapult B.An arbitrary index of the quickness that burning propellant changes into gas. Expulsion C. Balle C. and the pressure at which the burning takes place. Propulsion B. Mark only one answer for each item by marking the box corresponding to the letter of your choice on the answer sheet provided. rockets and guided missiles. Burning Rate C. Gas Power B. father of modern ballistics C. father of interior ballistics D. MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. It is the rate controlled by the chemical composition. A. Ballista Ballistics is the scientific study of the propulsion and motion of projectiles such as bullets. The account of his experiments was the most important contribution to A. Ballein D. A. SET THREE “Ballista” is a gigantic bow or catapult which was used to hurl large objects such as stones at a particular distance to deter animals or enemy forces.INSTRUCTION: Select the correct answer for each of the following questions. 1 only. Extraction The British engineer Benjamin Robins conducted many experiments in interior ballistics. 4. None of these Burning Rate .net 228 2. Interior ballistics D. father of modern gunnery B. father of forensic ballistics Late in the 18th century the Anglo-American physicist Benjamin Thompson made the first attempt to measure the pressure generated by gunpowder. . A. artillery shells. Forensic Ballistics C. Use pencil no. Exterior ballistics B. His findings justly entitle him to be called the A. 5.rkmfiles. Trajectory D. A. Accuracy C. Fire power What is the actual curved path of the bullet during its flight from the gun muzzle to the target? A.300 ft/sec. All of these The noise created at the muzzle point of the gun due to the sudden escape of the expanding gas coming in contact with the air in the surrounding atmosphere at the muzzle point. maximum distance www. Residual Pressure B. Muzzle Energy C. 10. Bulk Density 6. This is a number that relates to the effect of air drag on the bullet's flight and which can be used to later predict a bullet's trajectory under different circumstances through what are called "drag tables.net 229 . Muzzle Blast B. Recoil C. 8. drift D. It is the equal and opposite reaction of the gun against the forward movement of the bullet during the explosions.D. The means that the bullet may lose its speed very rapidly during its flight the air.rkmfiles. rifling curves B. Critical zone C. Fire power B. Bullet trajectory B. Misfire The speed per unit of time of the M16 is 3. Backfire D. Velocity 7. Energy D. Velocity C. effective range C. This refers to: A. Down Range 11. Ballistics Coefficient D. A. 9." A. Yaw B. Range noise D. The curve taken by the bullet while in flight is called A. Scorching D. What do you call the depth of entry of the bullet in the target? A. Terminal Ballistics D. It is also known as burning or charring.12. It is the clogging of the blood vessel by foreign bodies such as air or bits of fats or septic embolus causing blocking to the blood flow to the distal tissues supplied by the blood.net 230 . Shotgun www. A. Key-hole Shot – the tumbling of the bullet in its flight and hitting the target sideways as a result of not spinning on its axis.rkmfiles. Infection 18. Mid range trajectory D. Shot ballistics D. Power ranger C. A. Tattooing C. Power range 14. Embolism B. This is caused by the flame or hot gases not by the hot projectiles as is commonly believed. A. This refers to A. Chilled Shot C. which is a long smooth bored firearm that is designed to prepare a single shot? A. All of these 16. Pink coloration 17. Back shot C. Shot Gun B. Point Blank 13. Shocking power D. Shotgun pellets made from lead especially hardened by the addition of a slight amount of antimony. Terminal Velocity B. Hemorrhage D. Terminal Penetration C. The power of the bullet that results in the instantaneous death of the victim is called A. Zero power B. Key-hole shot B. Terminal Power 15. Bleeding C. Among the following. Blackening B. better fire power 23. One from Hartford. A. It includes rocket launchers and such mounted guns as howitzers. all of these 25.rkmfiles. Caliber 19. Glock 24. Uzi C. a complete unfired unit consisting of a bullet. there is no recoil D. case. Garand 20. cartridge. and naval guns. it can be fired rapidly B. Musketry www. Oliver Winchester D. 1350 21. John C. 1313 B. A. A. Samuel Colt B. 1413 C. Connecticut. Frame C. Grip B. Historians considered that the age of gunpowder began with its first use as a propellant for a projectile on A. who produced the first practical revolver and became famous for its .45 caliber. antiaircraft guns. The main advantage of the double-action revolver over the single-action revolver is that A. Rifling 22. Gunnery B. A. 1280 D. Machine gun D. Technically speaking. Musket C. it can be fired single shot C. Carbine D. That part of the handgun designed in a metal tube through which the bullet is fired. gunpowder and primer C.600 rounds of ammunition each minute.net 231 . a group of cartridges or to a single unit or single cartridge B. the term ammunition refers to A. An automatic weapon that can fire from 400 to 1. Artillery C.B. Carl Walther C. Armalite B. a “single round” D. Barrel D. mortars. event C. Educational tour D. Slippage Marks 28. that before the bullet can begin to turn. A mechanism in a revolver that connects pivot between the frame and cylinder.net 232 . Court exhibits C. anvil 30. Court prceedings B. Provisional Proof B. Proof Marks C. Skid Marks – When the bullet first starts forward without turning. A. motion pictures during A. A photograph of the crime scene is a factual reproduction and accurate record of the crime scene because it captures time. Primer cup B. A. Skid Marks D. Proof Marks – It is the examination and testing of firearms by a recognized authority according to certain rules and stamped with a mark to indicate that they are safe for sale and used by the public. trigger guard C. thing D. individual photos. projection slides. It is the soft guiding metal which serves as the container of priming mixture. Ballistics 26.rkmfiles. person B.D. A. Paper disc D. space and ___ A. Primer mixture C. it moves forward a small distance and this makes the front of the groove in the bullet wider than the rear part which leave an impression called A. Battery cup 27. yoke D. Skid Marks D. Provisional Proof B. Proof Marks C. trigger spring B. In police photography it can be use as demonstration enlargements. crime scene 31. Crime prevention www. Slippage Marks 29. paper disc and anvil. Cyan C. Camera B. 590 mu 36. In photography. A.32. Photograph device C. Yellow 37. Absorption D. Film 34. 450 mu C. which one is not a primary color? A. 550 mu D. The bending of light around an object gives rise to the phenomenon called ___. defragmentation 35. Convection www. Film and accessories D. What is the approximate wavelength of the primary color red? A. Magenta D. This phenomenon is responsible for the partial illumination of object parts not directly in the path of the light. All of these B. ___Absorption refers to the taking in of light by the material. such light taken in is not lost but merely transformed into heat. Somnambulism C. Diffraction B. Photograph D. Following the law of conservation of energy. Flashlight 33. ___ is a mechanical result of photography.rkmfiles. the light writes when it strikes minute crystals of light sensitive surfaces (films and photographic papers) thru the use of a mechanical device called A. A. diffraction D. detraction B. A. In photography. Picture C. Camera B.net 233 . retraction C. 700 mu B. Reflex D. converge www. What changes the size of the aperture of the lens and regulates the amount of light reaching the film? A. or come together. Inches C. Shutter release button D. Shutter speed B. film 41. What kind of lens causes light rays to converge. A. A. Nikkon camera 40. A. normal. lens D. Lenses are referred to in generic terms as wide-angle. Mile per second 43. and telephoto. a dial which sets the length of time in which the light is allowed to enter the camera? A.38.rkmfiles. The three terms refer to the focal length of the lens. The simplest camera is a ___. The lens is as important a part of a camera as the body. Convex C. and is called a positive lens. None of these 39. Pinhole camera D. Opaque objects C. Concave B. Shutter speed dial 42. These are TRANSPARENT OBJECTS – mediums that merely slow down the speed of light but allow to pass freely in other respects. Transparent objects D.net 234 . What part of the camera controls the opening and closing of the shutter. which is customarily measured in ____ A. diaphragm B. regulates the quantity of light that reaches and affects the sensitized material. Translucent objects B. A positive lens focuses light form a distant source into visible image that appears on then opposite side of the lens to the object. shutter C. Fixed focus camera C. Centimeters D. Camera obscura B. transmit 90% or more of the incident light. Millimeters B. Focusing mechanism C. which consists of a box with a small hole in one of its sides. A. all of these 46. It is defined as the product of illumination and time. Top layer B. Infinity B. Viewing Filter B. blurred in appearance C. Filtering D.net 235 . Lens change C. Emulsion layer C. These are used to control the relative tone values in which colors are rendered by the photographic process. Film surface 47. Light 48. Photographic exposure B. A.44. ___ is the process of changing the distance between the centers of the lens to the focal plane. None of these C. clear in appearance B.rkmfiles. It is important to have the lens at the right distance from the film otherwise the image of an object point will be seen as a circle which is A. in the second at a distance of one meter from the surface of the sensitive material. None of these www. A. It is the technique of adjusting the focal length to get the sharp image of the object or scene to be photographed. to lighten or darkened particular colors or to obtain color separation records for color photography works. Color Filter C. Photographic speed D. Shutting 45. The unit of it is usually in meter candle second which is equivalent to exposure produced by a light source of one candlepower. Film base D. What part of the film consists of silver compounds which are light sensitive and halogens? A. no photo D. Focusing D. Glossy paper B. A. Holographic wills C. A conclusion that is not based on scientific examination B. Script B. A scientific findings as to the content of document D. The results. A mere speculation of facts contained in the document C. Graphology www. photographic papers is made in several different grades of contrast and surface texture. It is a kind of handwriting that is characterized by being connected in which one letter is joined to the next.49. regardless of their effectiveness are termed as ___.rkmfiles. A. containing disposition of commercial rights or obligations. What is the paper made by Kodak that offers six degrees of contrast and glossy surface? A. The term "insertion" and "interlineations" include the addition of writing and other material between lines or paragraphs or the addition of whole page to a document. A. Because of the fact that all negative do not print best on one kind of paper. A. Vigorous D. Obliteration D.net 236 . Bond paper 50. Cursive 54. Private document 51. Velox paper D. Disguised writing D. Manila paper C. Block C. In questioned document examination. Commercial document B. Integration C. and in order to permit printing for special effects. None of these 52. All of these 53. Insertion or interlineations B. what is an “OFF-HAND OPINION”? A. Notarial wills D. A writer may deliberately try to alter his usual writing habits in hopes of hiding his identity. Down stroke B. Gestalt C. One that is executed in accordance with the Code of Commerce or any Mercantile Law. one of the lines of an alphabet or series of lines or curves within a single letter. A.rkmfiles. One is not a type of handwriting "Standards" A. Pen hold C. erasure 60. falsification B. forgery D. All of these 59. The element of the writing movement which is marked by regular or periodic recurrences. Shading B. dactyloscopy D. Stroke 58.55. Collected Standards B. Pen lift B. What do we call the series of lines or curves written in a single letter. fecalysis www. A. intermittent.net 237 . Slope C. handwriting analysis B. counterfeiting C. Delta D. The study of handwriting to determine one's personality traits is called A. graphology C. Simplification C. the path traced by the pen on the paper? A. Requested standards C. Post litem motan exemplars D. The act/process of making the content/s of a document not the intended content. Pren pressure 56. Slope slant D. Rhythm 57. Print script D. or jerky in its quality. Pen lift B. The place where the writer grasps the barrel of the pen and the angle at which he holds it is called A. It may be classed as smooth. “Hindu book of health and science” which is considered as the earliest known reference of the methods for detecting deception. John Larson 62. Angelo Mosso C. Cesare Lombroso B. Who studied fear and its influence on the hearth and his observations subsequently formed the basis for the technique in the development of the sphygmamomanometer and the scientific cradle. A. Telling D.net 238 .61. Polygraph C. William Marston D. A. Any untruthful statement. which he used in studying fear on the heart? A. Angelo Mosso C.rkmfiles. pulse rate. William Marston D. Lie 65. Arya abram D. It is a scientific diagnostic instrument used to record physiological changes in the blood pressure. Truth serum 64. Joke B. falsehood. Cesare Lombroso B. Lie detection B. Who employed the first scientific instrument to detect deception? This instrument known as hydrosphygmograph. measured changes in pulse and blood pressure when suspects were questioned about their involvement in or knowledge of a specific response. Story C. anything that deceives or creates false impression. John Larson 63. Midos Yagu www. A. Hindu Yoga B. A. Ayur-Veda C. Polygraph examination D. respiration and skin resistance of an examinee under controlled condition. This test is applied when the response to relevant and control questions are similar in degree and in consistency and in a way that the examiner cannot determine whether the subject is telling the truth or not. Evidence connecting question 70. The major component of the polygraph machine are. PNEUMOGRAPH B. In polygraph examination. KYMOGRAPH E. GALVANOGRAPH D. Metabolism D. Eugenics C. The science and art of improving human breeds by so applying the ascertained principles of genetics and inheritance as to secure a desirable combination of physical characteristics and mental traits in the offspring of suitably mated parents? A. Is today Monday? C. polygram C. analysis D. Guilt complex test D. Control question B. Peak of tension test C. Genetics B. result B. the whole chart when finished is called A.net 239 . Psycho Synthesis 67. All of the above 71. diagnostic 68. Relevant question C. Which of the following questions made in a polygraph examination maybe considered an irrelevant question? A. Are you over 20 years of age? D. Have you ever been called by the name Allan? B.66. A.rkmfiles. A. General question test www. Silent answer test B. CARDIO-SPHYMOGRAPH C. “Did you shoot Mr X?” is an example of __ in polygraph examination. PEN AND INKING SYSTEM 69. Irrelevant question D. except A. They dry too quickly C. Satisfactory for comparison purposes 77. Tented arch 76. Permanency B. It symbolized by letter X in the fingerprint classification. These are fingerprints which are imprinted by mere chance or without any intention to produce the print. A. Which has been known as the circulating tissue of the body? A. X D. AMP B. APT D.rkmfiles. Accidentals 75. Chance print B. XX 73. Arches B. They are too thin B. Generality 74. A principle involved in fingerprinting which states that there are no two fingerprints that are exactly alike unless taken from the same finger. Visible print D. markings are made with the use of signs and symbols. Latent print 78. Infallability D. Loops C. except A. Which of the following examples of chart markings should be the first marking of the examiner in the chart? A. Individuality C. If a finger appears to be amputated (cut off) just place the symbol or simple abbreviation as __ and the date of amputation on the box of the finger actually amputated. Whorls D. XX / 60 / 1. colored ink and stamp pad are objectionable are. A. Ulnar Loop B. Chance impression C. The biggest percentage of fingerprint pattern is A. The reason why fountain pen ink. Accidental whorl D. To facilitate evaluation and interpretation of test charts. X / 60 / 1. A.72. The stamp pad smears easily D. AMPUT 79.5 A B. brain www. AMPT C. Plain arch C.5 A C. A.net 240 . Wound characterized by products of forcible contact are called A. Levine test 82. Coup injury B. nails B. What kind of fluid is used to restore tampered serial numbers? A. A. skin C. hair D. Precipitin test C. skin C. Etching fluid B. Mutilation D. Baberios test D. Abrasion B. Gun serial fluid 84. Locus minoris resistancia 85. STP fluid C. Cloth 81. Coup contre coup injury D. Plasma C. Red cells D.net 241 . What test is used to determine whether blood is a human or non-human origin? A. The yellowish fluid of blood in which numerous blood corpuscles is called A. ____ is a specialized epithelial outgrowth of the skin which occur everywhere on the human body except on the palm of the hands and the sole of the feet.B. Multiple wound C. pores 83. None of these 80. Contre injury C. the injury found at site of the application of force is called A. Serum B. Marquis test B.rkmfiles. As regards the relation of the site of the application of force and location of injury. Punctured www. Motolite fluid D. Mucus membrane D. Erectile failure 90. Death by mutilation C. penetration B. Robert Peel www. a group of police officers attached to the Bow Street Court. Naturalization 88. Jonathan Wild C. In England. Death by violence 87. Henry Fielding B. a master criminal who became London’s most effective criminal investigator. fingering 89. insemination D. A. Alexander Mocanochie B. irrigator. John Fielding C. Adoption B. He was the most famous THIEF-CATCHER in 1720s. Legitimation C.rkmfiles. Foster parenting D. pipette. John Howard D. A. The physical incapacity of either sex to allow or grant to the other legitimate sexual gratification. insertion C. performing criminal investigative functions. he was a buckle maker then a brothel operator. Billy Cook D. He was known to be the creator of the “bow street runners”. John Howard 91. A. Sterility B. Frigidity D. Impotency C. All forms of violent death which results primarily from the interference with the process of respiration or to condition in which the supply of oxygen to the blood or tissue or both has been reduced below normal level are called A. A. It is defined as a remedy or process by which a child born out of lawful wedlock and are therefore considered illegitimate are by fiction of law considered by subsequent valid marriage of the parents. The introduction of seminal fluid with spermatozoa in the generative of a woman by any means of springe. etc is called A. and not in uniform.86. Death by asphyxia B.net 242 . Death by injection D. John Fielding C.92. The SC ruled the illegally obtained evidence is inadmissible in state criminal prosecutions in the famous case of www. Pines Hamilton 95.rkmfiles. The first woman detective in the history of criminal investigation. Kate Wayne D. A. America’s most famous private investigator and founder of Criminal Investigation A. Henry Fielding B. Alec Nayhem B. Fox Talbot B. Candy Miles C. Kathleen Jacob B. A. A. John Howard D. None of these 94. Hans Gross B. Francis Galton 96. Francis Galton 97. Thomas Byrnes C. which became famous police organization in the world. he recognized their uniqueness and significance in criminal identification. The founder and chief organizer of the London Metropolitan Police – the Scotland Yard. Arthur Conan Lyle B. A. Thomas Byrnes C. An Englishman who published his study on classifying fingerprints. Alphonse Bertillon D. An Englishman who published a handbook for Examining Magistrates in Munich. Robert Peel 93. A French Police Clerk who introduced and established the first systematic identification system based on anthropmetrical Signalment and became the founder of criminal identification. Alphonse Bertillon D. Alphonse Bertillon D. Thomas Byrnes C. A.net 243 . While other scientists were studying fingerprints in their biological nature. Thomas Byrnes D. Francis Galton 98. Germany and advocated the use of scientific methods in criminal investigation process. Allan Pinkerton C. rkmfiles.A. C. the number one SOP in investigation C. alter or remove anything at the crime scene until the evidence has been processed through notes. do not touch. As a rule. This refers to A. and having responsibility of taking care and preserving the evidences from the time it was found until brought to court for presentation is called A. sketches and photographs. Key events C. Chain of custody of evidence D. the golden rule in investigation B. Chain of events B.End of Set Three - ANSWER KEY www. with proper measurements. D. Chain of command . the act of crime scene preservation 100. the act of note taking D.net 244 .The continues accountability of persons handling evidences. Miranda vs Arizona Otit vs Jeff Mapp vs Ohio Milkey vs Wett 99. B. 3. B 94. C 79. 56. 70. 73. 23. 17. 11. 53. 63. D 78. 62. B B B B D D C C C A C C C B B D B C A C C A D D A 26. 32. 6. 19. 55. 44. C 83. 50. 36. 47. 24. 38. 21. 48.The following are the suggested answers to the given test items in this quizzer. 12. 49.rkmfiles. 74. 20. 64. 58. 22. A 95. 60. A 93. 35. 68. 15. D 87. 5. 16. 34. 61. B 84.net 245 . C 99. B C B C C B C B A C B C A D C C B A D D B A D C A 51. 45. 7. A 97. 40. C 88. D 86. 4. D 89. B 77. 43. 52. A 82. C 81. B D A B C D D C C B C A C B A B D C D D A C A D B 76. 33. 27. C 91. B 92. 2. corrections are yours – rkm Criminal Jurisprudence & Procedure Set One 1. 65. 42. 41. A 96. 59. 18. 37. 39. 28. Errors are mine.C Criminal Jurisprudence Set Two www. A 90. 30. 54. A 85. 9. 8. 31. 66. 25. 46. 13. A 80. 67. 10. 14. 69. 75. C 100. A 98. 57. 72. 29. 71. A 8.A 91.A 66.B 25.C 76.A 94.A 35.B 42. B 6.D 89.A 27.A 86.C 95.A 70.A 83.B 39.B 32. C 9.D 18.D 90. A 7.A 69.D 16.C 68.D 44.A 48.net 246 .A 92.C 17.A 93.A 80.D 12.A 52.A 28.B 49.A 41.A 72.D 96.D 20.B 99.A 65.A 38.B 100. C Law Enforcement Administration Set One www.A 55.B 75.B 34.C 51.D 73.C 79.B 58. A 5.A 71.C 54.C 77.D 21.D 26.B 82.D 37. D 10.A 31.rkmfiles.B 14.A 24.A 22.B 47.B 11.D 50.A 60.C 40.D 97.B 98.A 59.A 88.B 63. A 3.D 61.B 64.D 15.C 62.B 13.B 81.C 19.A 29.B 74.B 30.D 78.B 56.1. B 2. A 4.B 45.A 85.B 23.A 84.C 36.A 43.B 33.C 57.B 46.C 67.D 87.D 53. 16. 13. B 78. 8. 60. 71. 61. 54. 52. C 88. 20. 34. 18. 21. 32. 11. C 94. 22. 4. D 83. 12. 24. 67. D 81. D 100. 28. C 77. 30. 65. D 80. 27. 39. 40. A 92. 66. 15. 14. 49.B Law Enforcement Administration Set Two www. D 87. 55. C 89. 23. 3. 72. C 82. 58. D 90. C C A B B B A C A C A C D C B A A C B D C A A C B 51. E 85. C 84. 75. 17. 37. 59. 47. 70. 57. B 99. C 95. A 98. 64. 68. 9. 62. 33. 6. 48. 42. D 93. C 97. C 79. 74. 35. D 96. C 91. 46. 7. 50. 31. A 86. 2. 56. 53.net 247 . 43. 19. 10. 63. C C B C D B D C B D D C A D B B D C B D D D B D B 26. 29. 38. 25. 5. B C B A C C BONUS B C N/A N/A N/A N/A N/A N/A N/A N/A D D E B C A D C 76. 44. 73. 45.1. 69. 41.rkmfiles. 36. C Correctional Administration Set One www. 68. 69. 74. 11.1. D 82. 72. 60. 71. 3. 22. A 98. 31. 75. 24. 25. A 80. D 93. A 97. 4. 53. 13. 16. 20. 55. C 81. 49. 21. 30. 50. 46. 61. C 84. 73. B 90. 38. A 99. C 94. 8. 14. A 92. 47. C 77. 9. 57. C C A A D D D A D C D D D B D D A B D C D D C B A 51. C 95. B 87. 33. 48. B 86. D C B A B B B C A B A A D A B C C D A C D A D B C 76. 18. 70. 40. 65. B 89. 12. 28. 66. 10.rkmfiles. C 96. D 79. 29. C 78. 35. 17. A 83. 32. 45. 37. 27. 36. 6. C 85. 19. 15. 39. 56. 41. 59. 63. A 100. 58. 62. 2. D 91. 64. 34. 5. 43. 42. 44. 23. 54. A 88. 7.net 248 . C C C B B B C C A A A A A C A A C A B C A D D A C 26. 52. 67. 42. 59. B 83.rkmfiles. 39. 35. 3. 56. 22. 10. 53. 18. 32. B 98. 30. 6. 45. C 86. A 82. 16. 46. D 90. 31. 63. 74. 13. B C A B D A D D C A B B B D C A B B D A D B C D D 26. 47. D 87. 40. 17. 8. 73. C 95. 75. 4. 28. 72. 57. 7. B 77. C 91. 64. 54. 65. C 88. A 81. 29. D 97. B 99. 14. 55. C 84. 23. C 92.B Correctional Administration Set Two www. 21. 11. 43. 24. 69. 66. 49. 5. 12. 25. C 89. 62. B D A C D C B A D B B D A A C C B D B B D A B A C 76. 61. A 85. 19. 36. D 96. 52. C 93. 67. 33. 70. 20. 44. C 94. D 80. 37. 2. A 100. 27. 71. B B D C A A A B D B B C B D B B B A A C A A B C A 51. B 78. 34.net 249 . 48. 15. 68. 50. 41. 58. 60. 9. 38.1. D 79. 25. 59. 9. 53. 47. B 81. 70. 58. A 83. 39. C 82. 40. 38. 21. C A A A A C B C A C B A A A A A B C D D D B C B D 26. 43. 6. 56. 3. 4. 54. D 80. 75. 32. 8. A 85. 28. 5. 12. A 78. 41. 13. 24. 14. 60. 66. 61. B 94. 7. 46. 73. C 93. 19. 11. 37. A 99. A 88. C 95. A D A B B A C C B A C B B C B B B B B C A A D B B 51. C 97. 65. A 77. B 86. A 100. 42. 44. 34. C 87.net 250 . 10. 17. A 89. 20. B 84. B 98.rkmfiles. 71. 16. 27. 64. 49. 62. A 91. 18. 67. 29. 36. A 96. 15. 45. 74. 52. A 92. 33.A Criminalistics Set One www. 72. A A A B B C B B A C C D B C C C C B B A D C D A A 76. 55. 57. 30.1. 63. 68. 69. 50. 35. D 79. 23. 22. 48. 2. B 90. 31. 7. 25. 49. D B B B A D D D A A A A B B D C D D B A D D A D C 51. 67. 11. A 85. 9. 19. 32. C 87. B 94. 30. 3. 65. A 89. 54. 48.net 251 . B 79. 73. C 90. 34. 20. A 96. 62. 61. D 91. 37. 31. 18. 29. 72. 42. 59. 27. 66. 39. 58. 56. 22. 55. 57. 10. A 93. 60. C 92. 64. 4. 8. 44. C 98. 52. 33. 69. 12. A 81. 74. 5. 40. 35. 28. 24. D 82. 63. A 88. 38. B 80. 23. D 97. B 84. D 78. B 86. A 77. A 100. 17.C Criminalistics Set Two www. 41. C 83. 53. 45. 47. 75. 50. 43. 13. 68. 36. 14. 2. 46. 21. C D C D B A D C C D A B D A D C B D C D C C A C C 76. 15.1.rkmfiles. D 95. 6. C 99. A C C D B D D D C B B C C C D D B D A C B D A C C 26. 70. 71. 16. B 77. 24. 57. 11. 18. A 82. C 81. 29. A 95. 8. B 85. 38. 39. 3. 35. 21. 69. 15. A D B A A B C B A A A A C B B A A C A B B B A C D 76. 70. 45. 20. 14. 53. 50.C Criminal Detection. A 86. C 98. 25. 36. C 94.1. 2. A 84. 13. 23. B 87. 40. 65. 68. 28. 62. C 88. 42. 41.net 252 . B 89. 34. B 79. 49. 31. 4. A 99. 47. D D D B B A B B C D B A A B C B A C A B B C A B B 51. 9. A 92. 12. A 100. 33. B 97. C 78. 22. 63. Identification & Prevention Set One www. 58. A 91. 71. 56.rkmfiles. D 93. 46. 19. 59. D 83. 5. B 90. 30. 75. 7. 54. 43. 64. 66. 72. B 96. 73. 74. 37. 61. 55. 10. 67. 52. 27. 16. 44. 17. B 80. 48. 6. B C D A B C B B D A A A D E C B A A A B C B C B D 26. 32. 60. 35. 60. 45. 49. 47. C 91. 70. 32. 29. 43. 66. D D B A D A A A A C A B C D A B A A A D B B B C A 76. D 82. B 88.net 253 . 25. 58. 2. 31. 6. 16. 22. A 90. 7. 28. D 84. D 94. 37. 38. 34. B 87. D 85. C Criminal Detection. 54. A A D B A A A C A C B D C C D D A C B C B C D C D 51. D 80. 48. 63. 20. A 92. 73. Investigation & Prevention Set Two www. B 79. 27. 59. 15. 62. A 83. A 97. 30. 41. C 100. 33. 14. A 96. 42. D 99. 18. 23. 71.1. 9. 69. 57. 72. 56. D 98. A 93. 52. 40. B 81. 55. D 78.rkmfiles. 46. 50. 10. 3. B 86. 74. 8. 24. 61. 13. 4. C 77. 12. 65. 75. 53. C D D D D A C A A A D D D B C C D D D B A A A B B 26. 64. 68. D 95. 39. 36. 44. 17. 19. 67. 5. B 89. 21. 11. 30. A 84.net 254 . 65. 45.A Criminal Sociology. 25. Ethics & Human Behavior Set One www. 12. 42. 47. 48. B 78. 38. 54. A 96. 70. B 88. B 87. 22. A D D C B C B C B D B C D D D B A D B C D C A A D 76. B 80. A 94. A 100. 75. 34. A 82. 53. 50. C 79. 21. 17. 32. C 92. B 81. 58.rkmfiles. A 98. 59. 62. 23. 44. 29. 24. 57. 61. C 93. 18. 19. D 90. 20. 55. 2. D 83. 74. 63. 69. 8. 6. 41. C 77. 49. A 85. 71. 64. 14. B D C C B D C C C A B D D D C B C D B D D C B D C 26. 56. 33. A 91. 60. 43. 10. 28. 7. 66. 36. C 86. 11. 72. 46. 3. 68. 5. 13. A 95. 52. 37. B 97. 9.1. 73. 31. 40. 35. B 99. 67. 15. 16. B A A C C B C B C C D C B C B B D C C B B A B A D 51. 39. D 89. 4. 27. 32. 54. 47. 8. 25. D 77.C Criminal Sociology. 16.net 255 . 30. 64. B B D A B A C D B C C D A A B A D C C A A B B A B 51. 65. B 88. 20. 56. D A B D A D B B B C B B C B C A B www. 58. 39. B 79. 32. 2. 13. 48. 21. 25. 5. D 78. 45. 40. A 98. B 85. 37. 42. 11. 64. 8. 2. C 83.1. 6. 27. Ethics & Human Behavior Set One 1. 60. 15. 9. 29. 18. 68. 63. 55. 73. 58. 24. 44. 45. 50. 12. D 97. 23. 57. 19. 53. 33. B 87. 19. 30. 70. 38. 46. 22. B 90. 37. 67. 3. B 89. C 84. 28. 61. 24. 63. 4. 59. B 92. 14. 42. 56. A 80. 36. 50. 27. A 94. B 91. 61. B 82. 65. 66. 26. 31. 11. 54. 3. C B B C D D B B B C B A B B C D A B A B C B A A C 26. E 100. 20. 28. 31. 40. 67. B 95. 10. 7. D 86. 7. 22. A C A A C A A A B B A B B A A A A 18. C 93. 21. 17. 34. 13. 34. 75. 59. 55. 60. 46. 51. A 99. 43. 33. 69. 4. 48. 23. 41. 47. 9. 10. 6. 14. 49. 44. 57. 16. 68. 35. 53. 39. 15. 5. 38. C 96. 52. C 81. B B A B A A B C A C D C B C C B C C D A B C C C B 76. 71. 74. 66. 36.rkmfiles. 62. 17. 72. 62. 29. C B A D C A B C D A C B A C B A B 35. D C B C C B C A A A C D D A C C C 52. 49. 41. 43. 12. 31. 47. 2. 19. 3. 16. 24. A A D B A B B A A A C D A C 29. 41. 72. 86. 52. 50. 40. 82. C D A A D A B D B B A A B C www. C 98.A KEY ANSWER ASSORTED QUESTIONS Assorted Questions Set One 1. 4. B 95.net 256 . 91. C C B C B A A A 77. 54. 70. 42. A 99.69. 80. 89. 53. 13. 73. 37. 30. 6. 74. 23. 33. B A B D B A D B 93. D 96.rkmfiles. 75. 17. 55. 28. 87. 25. 38. 79. 18. 45. 92. 90. B 100. 34. 21. 8. 76. 36. 14. 49. 5. 9. 71. 12. 7. 22. 35. D A D A C C D D A D A D A B 43. 26. 78. 46. 20. 44. 32. 48. 88. 11. A 97. 27. 84. 81. 51. 39. D B C A D A A A 85. 10. A D B A B D A B A B C B B A 15. 83. 56. B 94. 51. 85. 61. 9. 23. B B A D C A A C B A B Assorted Questions Set Two 1. 25. 91. 21. A A A A C A B C D B B A B C A C C 52. 82. 97. 67. 63. 49. 76. 70. 58. 48. 4. 29.57. 24. 84. 80. 60. 22. 60. 62. 16. 45. 73. 50. 5.net 257 . 3. 94. 57. 53. 68. 65. 30. 62. 55. 28. 64. 96. 12. 86. 59. 46. 17. 92. 72. 37. 54. 6. 32. 77. A B A B A B B B A A C 68. 63. 15.rkmfiles. 44. 89. 7. 93. A A C A C B B D D B B 90. 65. 31. 41. 42. 95. 81. 13. 36. 58. 83. 11. B C A D D A C B D B C 79. 8. 39. 14. 2. 66. 47. 26. 64. 33. A B D D D D B D B B B D D D D D D 18. 75. 69. 40. 10. 100. 87. 71. 59. 43. 99. 20. 61. 27. 34. 74. 38. 67. 56. 19. D A D D D A D C B B A D B C B A A 35. 66. A C A A C A C A C C A D D D A C D www. 78. 98. 88. 62. 34. 14. 66. 4. 2. 33. 60. 73. 80. 32. 71. 83. 29. 9. 67. 72. 56. 54. 39. 86. 35. B 95. 68. 6.69. C C A D D B B B 93. 59. 70. 42. 43. 76. 52.net 258 .rkmfiles. 49. 20. 57. 70. 17. B 94. A A C A C D B A B C C B B A C C A A 37. 23. 22. B B C B B B B C 85. B D D B A B B A B D B B B E B D D C www. 92. 41. 38. 26. 31. 11. 79. 63. 25. 72. 65. 3. 15. 91. 89. 46. 69. 90. 78. C 100. 27. 74. 47. 48. 36. 24. 12. C D C A A C B D 77. C C C A D A B C B B A B C A A A D C 55. D A A C B B B A A C C A C B B C A B 19. 28. 45. 53. 21. C 98. 7. 82. 75. 16. 30. 61. B 96. B 97. 40. C 99. 64. C Assorted Questions Set Three 1. 44. 5. 10. 18. 81. 51. 88. 71. 50. 13. 84. 58. 87. 8. 81. 84. 92. 93. 88. 79. 85. 91. C 99. A 100. D 97. 86. 89. 77. 82. 90. 75. C 95.rkmfiles.net 259 . C -End- www. A 98. 83. 76. 74. B C B B A D B 94. B B C A A A A 87. 78. A B C D B A D 80. C 96.73.