Regd.Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005 Ph.: 011-47623456 Time : 3 Hrs. MM : 720 MOCK TEST for NEET-2017 NEET-2017 GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS : 1. NEET-2017 shall be a single paper consisting 180 objective type questions from Physics, Chemistry and Biology (Botany & Zoology). 2. For each correct response 4 marks will be awarded, whereas for each incorrect response 1 mark will be deducted from the total score. 3. No deduction from the total score will be made if no response is indicated. 4. More than one answer will be negatively marked. 5. Questions are to be answered on the specially designed machine-gradable sheet using Blue/Black Ball Point Pen only. 6. Mark should be dark and should completely fill the circle in the answer sheet. 7. Do not use white-fluid or any other rubbing material on answer sheet. No change in the answer once marked. 8. Rough work must not be done on the answer sheet. 9. Student cannot use log tables and calculators or any other material in the examination hall. PHYSICS Choose the correct answer : (1) 2% (2) 3% Pressure of gas is given by P = n RT e RTV 1. V (3) 5% (4) 7% where, T = temperature, V = volume, R = universal gas constant and n = number of moles. The 3. A particle moves so that the displacement x at time dimensions of are t is given by x2 = 1 + t2. What is its acceleration? (1) ⎡⎣ ML5 T 2 ⎤⎦ (2) ⎡⎣ ML5 T 2 mol1 ⎤⎦ 1 (1) x (3) ⎡⎣ M1 L5 T 3 ⎤⎦ (4) ⎡⎣ ML4 T 3 mol1 ⎤⎦ t2 (2) 2. To measure the resistance of cylindrical wire whose x3 resistivity is 1.7 10–8 m, the length of wire is measured as 10 cm. The scale used to measure 1 t2 (3) length has a least count 1 mm, the radius of wire is x x3 measured as 1.00 mm with the help of micrometer whose least count is 0.02 mm. Find the percentage t2 t (4) 3 3 error in the computation of resistance. x x (1) A and C are the points on same line. for which tension in the string AB is minimum. If they strike the ground simultaneously. the equation of its trajectory is down with constant velocity. A block of mass m having charge q is sliding down 4. an inclined plane of inclination and coefficient of where iˆ is along ground and ˆj is along the vertical. 9. friction . (4) q ⎜⎝ ⎟⎠ If the shot hits the object P on an inclined plane horizontally then the relation between and is 10. In mass m is released from top. In a smooth circular tube of radius R. The direction in which (2) q ⎜⎝ 1 tan ⎟⎠ the pilot should head the plane to reach the point B is mg ⎛ ⎞ (3) ⎜ ⎟ (1) North-West direction (2) 30° East of North q ⎝ tan ⎠ (3) 30° West of North (4) 60° West of North mg ⎛ tan ⎞ 6. Then with vertical where particle will leave the contact with inner surface and starts revolving in the contact of outer surface will be C A R (1) Velocities of A and C are different but accelerations are same (2) Velocities of A and C are same but accelerations are different 1 ⎛ 2 ⎞ 1 ⎛ 1 ⎞ (1) sin ⎜ ⎟ (2) tan ⎜ ⎟ (3) Velocities and accelerations both are same for A ⎝3⎠ ⎝3⎠ and C position 1 ⎛ 2 ⎞ 1 ⎛ 1 ⎞ (4) Velocities and accelerations both are different (3) cos ⎜ ⎟ (4) tan ⎜ ⎟ ⎝3⎠ ⎝2⎠ for A and C position (2) . The value of E is (1) 4y = 2x – 25x2 (2) y = x – 5x2 mg ⎛ tan ⎞ (3) y = 2x – 5x2 (4) 4y = 2x – 5x2 (1) q ⎜⎝ 1 tan ⎟⎠ 5. is 53° A (1) 30° 30° C (1) 3u1 = 4u2 (2) 4u1 = 3u2 (2) 60° u2 (3) 45° B (3) u1 u2 (4) u1 2 (4) 90° w 11. The wind is mg ⎛ tan ⎞ blowing towards east at a speed of 20 m/s. B is at north of A. When uniform electric field E is applied parallel to the base of inclined plane. the block slides If g = 10 m/s2. An aeroplane has to go from a city A to another city B 500 km away. A sphere is rolling without slipping on a fixed 8. A shot is fired from O at an angle with horizontal. then the relation between u1and u2is 1 (2) tan tan P 4 u1 37° (3) tan 4 tan (4) tan 2 tan O u2 7. Shots are fired simultaneously from the top and the bottom of a vertical cliff with elevation 37° and 53° (1) 2 tan tan respectively as shown. The value of . a particle of horizontal plane surface with a constant speed.Complete Syllabus Test Mock Test for NEET-2017 A projectile is given an initial velocity of iˆ 2 ˆj m/s. The angular position the figure. The air speed of aeroplane is 40 m/s. An object of specific gravity is hung from a (3) v 0 (4) K 2 K massless string. Two blocks of masses 1 kg and 2 kg are suspended section of 8 cm2. Equation of motion of particle performing SHM is volume is submerged.15 m min–1. If the liquid flows inside section. A train approaching a hill at a speed of 40 km/h sounds a whistle of frequency 580 Hz. One mole of an ideal monatomic gas undergoes 100°C. The object is immersed in water so that one half of its 17. There is no friction between floor and y blocks. The cylindrical tube of a spray pump has a cross 14. other end of which has 40 fine with the help of two wires having same area of cross holes each of area 10–8 m2. Find the maximum compression in spring. (Velocity of sound in air = 1200 km/h) 2 kg (1) 600 Hz (2) 620 Hz (1) 8 : 1 (2) 4 : 1 (3) 500 Hz (4) 560 Hz (3) 6 : 1 (4) 2 : 1 20. then the speed with which the liquid is ejected through the Y1 1 is Y 2 . r x v0 O K P Q m m 2 Gm ˆ 2 Gm ˆ (1) j (2) j r2 r2 2m v0 m (1) 2 v 0 (2) K 2 K 2 Gm ˆ 2 Gm ˆ (3) j (4) i r2 r 2 2m v0 2m 13.5 seconds (1) ⎜ ⎟T (2) ⎜ ⎟T ⎝ 2 ⎠ ⎝ 2 ⎠ is (particle begins at mean position) (1) 2a (2) 3a ⎛ 1⎞ ⎛ 1⎞ (3) ⎜ ⎟T (4) ⎜ ⎟T (3) 5a (4) 9a ⎝ ⎠ ⎝ ⎠ 18. then molar heat capacity thermal equilibrium is reached? T of gas is 1 3R 5R (1) 2 (2) (1) (2) 2 2 2 7R 1 (3) (4) 2R (3) 3 (4) 2 3 (3) . What will be the ratio of mass of steam and 1 water in final composition of the system when process in which P . 1 kg of ice at 0°C is mixed with 1 kg of steam at 15. The tension in string is T. A block Q of mass m moving with velocity v 0 semicircular ring (of mass m and radius r) shown collides with another block P of same mass as here is shown in figure. Gravitational field intensity at the centre O of the 16. A wind with a speed of 40 km/h is blowing in the direction of motion of the Y2 1 m train. when it is at 1 kg a distance of 1 km from hill.55 m/s wires is (3) 5 m/s (4) 50 m/s Y1 2 m 19. If the amplitude of oscillation is a.Q sticks to P.Mock Test for NEET-2017 Complete Syllabus Test 12.5 m/s (2) 0. Find the frequency of echo heard by the driver. If the ratio of Young’s modulus of the wires the tube with a speed of 0. dt ⎛ 2 1⎞ ⎛ 2 1⎞ then the distance covered by particle in 2. After collision. The new tension in the string d2x is 2 2 x 0 . then the ratio of extensions produced in holes is 2 (1) 0. 5 1015 s1 ) t ⎤⎦ . 3 (1) 2 eV (2) 4. (3) 50 days (4) 60 days 27. Find the approximate v maximum kinetic energy of photoelectrons emitted (3) v (4) from the surface. Coil y has 25 turns and carries current of 18 A. An electric field of 20 N/C exists along the x-axis in space. The ratio of de-Broglie wavelength of molecules of hydrogen and helium which are at temperature 27°C (1) 4 R1 R22 M 2 (2) M 4 5 R12 R22 and 127°C is 4 8 (1) (2) (3) 2 R1 R22 M 2 (4) 4 R1 5R22 M 2 3 3 23.72 mJ (4) Zero (3) 3. Find the speed of the second mass after collision. The positive current in x is anticlockwise and in y. then the value of X will be 4 3 29. the negative terminal of a 12 V battery and vice-versa. Coil x has (4) 60 V 20 turns and carries a current of 16 A. A 5 F capacitor is charged to 12 V.Complete Syllabus Test Mock Test for NEET-2017 21.56 mJ (1) 2. After how 3 many days the room will be safe for occupation? direction perpendicular to the initial direction of (1) 20 days (2) 40 days motion. 5 m) are the points in space. After 10 days) is spread inside a room and consequently the level of radiation becomes 64 times permissible v collision first mass moves with velocity in a level for normal occupancy of the room. Moment of inertia of an annular ring of mass M and of inner radius R1 and outer radius R2 about the axis (3) 1 eV (4) Zero tangential and parallel to the diameter of ring is 28. If A(4 m.44 mJ (2) 1.7 Am2 (4) 5 Am2 (4) . A mass m moves with a velocity v and collides 26. then the value of potential difference (3) (4) (VB – VA) between these points is E E (1) – 120 V 30. resultant magnitude of magnetic moment due to The heat developed in the process is these coils is (1) 1.2 eV 22. Some amount of a radioactive substance (half life = inelastically with another identical mass at rest. The sense of 25. if potential difference between A 3 1 (3) (4) and B is VA – VB = 4 V. Two concentric coils x and y of radii 16 cm and (2) – 40 V 10 cm respectively lie in the same vertical plane (3) – 80 V containing the North-South direction. For plate of this capacitor is now connected to the an observer looking at the coil facing west. clockwise. The energy spectrum of -particle number (N) as a 10 5V function of -particle energy (E) emitted from a radioactive source is A B N N X 2V (1) (2) (1) 20 (2) 25 E E (3) 30 (4) 40 N N 24. The surface of a metal of work function 2 eV is 2 (1) v (2) 3v illuminated by light whose electric field component is 3 E 100 ⎡⎣ sin(1. In the given circuit. 2 m) and B(6 m.3 Am2 (2) 3 Am2 (3) 1. 3 V exists across a in uniform transverse magnetic field at point A. An electron moves along the line XOX which lies in secondary maxima? the same plane as that of the square loop of conducting wire as shown. A plane wavefront of wavelength is incident on a single slit of width b.6 ⎟ eV of image from x-axis is ⎝ n ⎠ ⎝ n ⎠ y ⎛ 13.125 105 (2) 3.8 105 m/s A 37. n2 (1) 100 V (2) 162 V What will be its value if zero potential is considered (3) 150 V (4) 200 V of first orbit? 34. then (2) Anticlockwise as electron moves from X to O the value of is (3) Clockwise as electron moves from O to X (1) 11° (2) 9° (4) Both (2) & (3) 33.7. C = 1 wavelength of monochromatic light is (1) 3 (2) 4 (3) A = 0. A thin prism of angle 7° and refractive index 1. The distance (1) ⎜ 2 27. then what will be its approximate speed on entering the p-side? B (1) 2 105 m/s (2) 105 m/s v (3) 3 103 m/s (4) 3. Width of depletion region is 1 m. as p–n junction. In the given figure the focal length of convex lens is ⎛ 13.6 O 1. B = 0.Mock Test for NEET-2017 Complete Syllabus Test 31.6 V = 200 sin t + 100 sin 3t + 50 sin 5t? En eV . when zero potential is at infinity.2 ⎟ eV (4) eV ⎝ n ⎠ n2 2 cm x 41. What will be the reading of a hot wire voltmeter if (3) 7° (4) 5° it is connected across the terminals of a generator 40. 2 cm). What is the angular width for 32. If the emergent ray goes undeviated.2 ⎟ eV (2) ⎜ 2 13. C = 0 (5) .245 1013 (3) (4) qB qB 38. B = 1.5 cm (3) ⎜ 2 27.125 1013 2 2 m 2m (3) 1. C = 0 (3) 5 (4) 7 (4) A = 1. If an shown in figure.6 ⎞ 1 cm. The number of possible interference maximum for (1) A = 1. In the given circuit the output y becomes zero for the O inputs A B (1) 6 cm (2) 4 cm y C (3) 2 cm (4) 1 cm 35.245 1019 (4) 1.5 cm. A charged particle (of mass m and charge –q) enters 36. Time for which the particle remains electron with speed 5 105 m/s approaches this in the magnetic field region is p–n junction from n-side.6 ⎞ ⎛ 13. The direction of induced current is (1) (2) 2b b 2 b (3) (4) b X X O 39. A potential barrier of 0. The energy of electron in the n th orbit is whose voltage wave form is represented by 13. If 200 MeV energy is released per fission of uranium atom.5 is (1) Clockwise as electron moves from X to X combined with another prism of angle and refractive index 1. then the number of fission per second required 2 m m to release one kilowatt power is (1) (2) qB qB (1) 3. B = 1. C = 0 YDSE in which slit separation is twice the (2) A = 0.6 ⎞ 13. An object is at (–1. B = 0. ) 50. When focussed on a distant V0 object.5 cm (1) (2) V0 2 45. B and C are –100.5 (2) 1.4 K (3) Ni (4) Co 56. In gamma ray emission from a nucleus The value of B at that point is (1) Only the proton number changes (1) 2. Number of H+ ions given by one molecule of H3PO2 (1) b (2) 2b when dissolved in water is (3) 3b (4) 4b (1) 1 (2) 2 54. –200 and –500 (3) 8 (4) 9 kJ/mol respectively.35 g of Al 52. the value of Kc = 103 (1) 5 (2) 7 and G f of A. E 6. What is the hybridization of oxygen atom in furan? of B (g) and C (g) will be (1) sp3 (2) sp (1) PB = PC = 3 atm (2) PB = PC = 4 atm (3) sp2 (4) sp3d (3) PB = 2PC = 10 atm (4) PC = 2PB = 8 atm (6) .3 cm V0 (3) 215. CO2 is isostructural with completely to form Al2O3 will be (1) SO2 (2) NO2 (1) 1. the eyepiece must be shifted away by 10 cm. When an astronomical telescope is focussed on a distant star. The output waveform of half wave rectifier is 44.8 53.2 (3) KO2 (4) BeF2 (3) 3. If the value of Kp for the reaction A(s) B(g) + C(g) is 16 atm2. A plane electromagnetic wave of frequency 25 MHz V0 travels in a free space along the x-direction. the distance of the eyepiece from the V objective is 60 cm.5 cm (4) 357. then the temperature will be (approx. Which of the following can have same valency as its group number? (1) 2483. 43.4 K (4) 3883.2 (4) 0.1 108 kˆ T (2) Both the neutron number and the proton number change (2) 1. At a (3) (4) 2V0 2 particular point in space and time. A + B C.2 108 iˆ T (4) Only the neutron number changes (4) 2. The value of Vc (critical volume) is 47. Total number of orbitals present in g-subshell will be 55.3 jˆ V m . Which of the following will have the maximum heat (3) 3 (4) Zero of neutralization in magnitude? 48. The value of pressure at equilibrium 51.1 108 jˆ T CHEMISTRY 46.Complete Syllabus Test Mock Test for NEET-2017 42.2 108 kˆ T (3) There is no change in the proton number and the neutron number (3) 1.4 K (2) 3482 K (1) Cr (2) Fe (3) 2883. For the reaction. Which of the following transition in Be3+ gives same (1) 1 mole NaOH + 1 mole HCl frequency given by n = 4 to n = 2 in He+? (2) 1 mole NaOH + 1 mole HF (1) n = 2 to n = 1 (2) n = 6 to n = 3 (3) 1 mole NaOH + 1 mole CH3COOH (3) n = 8 to n = 4 (4) n = 3 to n = 2 (4) 1 mole KOH + 1 mole HCl 49. Weight of O2 required to react with 1. If the focal length of eyepiece is 5 cm. what T T 3T t will be the distance of the object from the objective? – 2 2 (Assume that the eye is focussed for infinity) The rms value of output is (1) 30 cm (2) 105. Which of the following is non-benzenoid aromatic? (1) Mg (2) Be (3) Sr (4) Both (1) & (2) 60.aminopentanoic acid Cl2 CH3 – CH – CH2 – CH3 Products. the colour appears 62. What is the IUPAC name of at the end is (1) Brown (2) Blood red CH 3 – CH – CH2 – CH2COOH? (3) Black (4) Prussian blue NH2 CN 69.2 . In qualitative analysis.Cyano . Which is optically active? (4) CH3 – CH – CH2 CH2 Cl CH3 CH3 (1) C=C=C=C C2H5 O C2H5 70. HCHO and CH 3 – C – CH 3 are the ozonolysis CH3 CH3 products of (2) C=C=C CH3 CH3 (1) CH3 – C = CH2 CH3 (3) CH3 CH3 C=C=C (2) CH3 – CH – CH = CH2 C2H5 C2H5 CH3 CH 3 CH3 (3) CH3 – CH2 CH = CH2 (4) C=C=C=C CH 3 CH3 (4) CH 3 – CH = CH – CH 3 (7) .4 .Cyano . Strongest acid out of the following is 1 mole of MnO4 in acidic medium? CH2 CH2 COOH CH2 CH2 COOH (1) 3 (2) 4 (1) (2) F NO2 (3) 2 (4) 5 CH2 CH2 COOH CH2 CH2 COOH 58.aminopentanoic acid CH3 (2) 3 . Which of the following alkaline earth metal does not (3) Benzene (4) Cyclopropane impart colour to the flame? 67. H2C2O4 (oxalic acid) and H2SO4 (conc.cyanopentanoic acid CH3 63. How many moles of I– ion are required to react with 65. Allotropes of hydrogen are (3) (4) Cl Br (1) Ortho and Meta (2) Ortho and Para 66.Amino .) on reaction (1) (2) give two gases.Mock Test for NEET-2017 Complete Syllabus Test 57.Amino . Major product of the following reaction is (1) 3 . (3) 2 .3 . Which of the following cannot show tautomerism? (1) CH3 – C – CH2 CH3 O O Cl CH3 (1) (2) (2) CH2 – CH – CH – CH3 O O Cl O O O CH3 (3) (4) (3) CH3 – CH – CH – CH3 O Cl O CH3 64. The gases are (1) CO and CO2 (2) CO and SO3 (3) CO2 and SO3 (4) SO2 and SO3 (3) (4) 61. Electrophilic substitution reaction takes place mainly in (3) Para and Meta (4) Ortho. Para and Meta (1) Methane (2) Ethyne 59.cyanopentanoic acid h (4) 4 . B2H6 on reaction with NH3 can give (1) B2H6 4NH3 (2) Borazine 68.3 . if both "N" and "S" are (3) B2N3 (4) All of these present in an organic compound. 5 s NH2OH H2 Pt 85. What will be the value of elevation in (1) [Mn(NH3)5 Cl ] Br boiling point if vapour pressure of pure liquid is 700 mm Hg and Kb = 10 K kg/mol? (Molar mass of (2) K4 [Fe(CN)5Cl ] solvent = 167 g) (3) [Mn(NH3)4(CN)2] Cl (1) 5 K (2) 10 K (4) [CoCl3(NH3)3] (3) 15 K (4) 20 K 83. If ECl 1.) solution is diluted? (1) C6H5OH (2) C6H4(OH)Cl (1) There will be no change in reduction potential (3) C6H4(OH)2 (4) No reaction (2) Oxidation potential will increase 84. Which of the following will show maximum number is 100 mm Hg when a non-electrolyte solute is of isomers? added to it. Leaching is done for the concentration of (4) Shows geometrical isomerism (1) Cu2S (2) Ag2S HN3 HNO2 (3) PbS (4) ZnS 86. Which of the following is correct regarding stability (1) SO3 (2) SO2 of oxidation state? (3) NO2 (4) NO (1) Ni2 Pt 2 (2) Cr 2 Cr 3 72. Interhalogen compounds are more reactive than respective halogens.5 g (3) N2H4/KOH and glycol What will be the value of t1 + t2 + t3 if rate constant of the reaction is k = 10 mol/L/s and half-life is 10 s? (4) All of these (1) 30 s (2) 12. 100 g 50 g 25 g 12. except (2) D is meso compound (1) I2 (2) Br2 (3) D is acyl chloride (3) CI2 (4) F2 (4) D is chloro alkene (8) .5 s H + 76. H2SO4 HCl anions in ionic PCl5 is B C D 443 K (1) 3 : 1 (2) 3 : 2 Which of the following is correct about D? (3) 1 : 3 (4) 2 : 3 (1) D is optically active 79. CH3CH2CHO can be converted to CH3CH2CH3 by (3) Reduction potential will increase (4) Reduction potential will decrease (1) Zn-Hg/HC t1 t2 t3 (2) HI/Red P 75.36 V . CH3 – C – CH3 A CH3 – CH – CH3 (3) 15 s (4) 17. A coagulating power for argyrol sol? (1) Is an amide (1) Cl– (2) SO24 NH 2+ (2) Is CH3 – C – CH3 (3) Ca (4) AI3+ (3) Shows tautomerism 77. Which of the following is paramagnetic? 2 (1) [Co(NH3)6 ]Cl3 (2) K4[Fe(CN)6] 3 (3) a (4) All of these (3) K3[Fe(CN)6] (4) Ni(CO)4 2 73. The ratio of sigma bonds present in cations and Conc. If the value of lowering in vapour pressure of a liquid 82. The product of the following reaction 74. CH3 CH2 CH2 CH2 COOH H SO A 2 4 78.Complete Syllabus Test Mock Test for NEET-2017 71. Reducing agent present in classical smog is 80. The distance between two octahedral voids in ccp unit cell is (3) Mn2 Mn3 (4) All of these a (1) (2) 2a 81. Which of the following will have maximum Here. then what will happen if KOH (aq) 2 /2Cl C6H5Cl Product (Room temp. 100% concentration of CO2 at enzyme site 97.r. Reimer-Tiemann reaction 88. 20. In which of the following character photosynthetic (3) Only (b) (4) (a).t. Which of the following partially heterotrophic member (s) (4) Colour-blind daughters and colour-blind sons capture. Which of the following can act as an antacid? (1) Tollen’s reagent (1) NaOH (2) Fehling’s solution (2) MgCO3 (3) Al(OH)3 (3) Lucas test (4) Both (2) & (3) (4) Br2 (aq) 90. 100% (4) 50%. 20. In Antirhinum majus. tube nucleus. 50% (3) Pumping mechanism increases the (3) 0%. pectin and hemicellulose anemic male may produce (2) It is a living mechanical tissue (1) Normal visioned sickle cell anemic sons (3) It occurs in layers below epidermis in root of (2) 50% colour-blind sons and all sickle cell anemic dicotyledonous plants daughters (4) It usually has high refractive index (3) Normal visioned sickle cell anemic daughters 95. 40 (2) 20. 20 (4) 20. 40 Mark correct option : (3) 40. 60. 60. (c) Cyclic flow of electrons (d) Oxygen evolving complex Which of the given characters/structures are concerned with stroma lamellae present in chloroplasts? (1) (a). (b) & (c) (2) (b). Considering 20 chromosomes in oosphere of castor (a) Cuscuta (b) Bladderwort plant. what proportions of phenotypes conditions in the offspring could be tall-white and tall-pink (2) RuBisCO catalyses a wasteful oxygenation respectively? reaction (1) 50%. 20. 60. Choose the incorrect statement w. Consider the following : (4) Has RuBisCO activity inside the bundle sheath cells (a) Oxidative phosphorylation 94. find out the number of chromosomes present in caruncle. PEC and nucellus respectively (c) Panthera tigiris (d) Dactylaria (1) 40. following (b) Lack NADP reductase diagram. when a cross is made between Lycopersicum esculentum? dwarf plant with pink flowers and homozygous tall (1) Show low CO2 fixation rate under high light plant with red flowers. 40 (1) (a) & (b) (2) (a) & (d) 93. A marriage between colour-blind and sickle cell (1) Cell wall possesses uneven thickenings of anemic female and normal visioned but sickle cell cellulose. 20.Mock Test for NEET-2017 Complete Syllabus Test 87. 4 – addition (3) Follows electrophilic substitution and gives (3) Both polymerize to form synthetic rubber product which is stabilized due to H-bonding (4) Both (1) & (2) (4) Involves acidic medium to form electrophile BIOLOGY 91. 20. (b) & (c) mechanism of Zea mays is different from 96. (c) & (d) (9) . kill and eat up members of animal species? 92. (c) & (d) (3) (b) & (c) (4) (a). Glucose and fructose can be distinguished by 89. The common between isoprene and chloroprene is (1) Follows electrophilic addition reaction (1) Both form addition polymer (2) Involves the addition of : CH2 (2) Both undergo 1. 50% (2) 0%. systems are induced by RNA catalysts? (b) Fertiliser factory may cause air pollution. (b) & (a) (4) (b). Which of the following biochemical reactions in living withstand without discomfort is about 150 dB. (d). (c) & (a) dominant for a Mendelian character (3) (c). In animals. Lily. peptide bond formation in bacteria (c) Water will become septic if the dissolved (2) Activation of amino acids in translation oxygen level drops to zero. Find out the incorrectly matched pair. (d).Complete Syllabus Test Mock Test for NEET-2017 98. Leguminoseae and 99. (c) & (d) (3) It is inheritance of chromosome aberration like 103. the organism. (b). Study the pedigree chart given below and mark the correct option: 102. Plum (3) Four (4) One (3) China rose. myotonic dystrophy (1) Historic Convention on Biological Diversity – Held (4) Generation II (b) – XcY. Reducing agent NADH + H+ is oxidized to NAD+ by (2) Great Indian Bustard Project – Desert National pyruvic acid in Park (Rajasthan) (1) Alcoholic fermentation (3) Nagarjunasagar Sirisailam (A. if unable to migrate. pollen grains maintain viability for seral stages there is a/an months due to (1) Increase in niche specialisation (1) Sporopollenin (2) Tectum (2) Decrease in total biomass (3) Specific proteins (4) Pectocellulosic intine (3) Development of mesic to dry conditions 106. In some members of Rosaceae. in the successive Solanaceae. thermal (1) Presence of 16 S rRNA enhances the rate of pollution and eutrophication.P. Rose (4) Sunflower. Consider the following events (a) Begins with the simultaneous splitting of Generation–I centromere (b) Bivalent chromosomes align on the equatorial Generation–II plate (a) (b) (c) (d) (c) Interkinesis Generation–III (d) Homologous chromosomes separate and move (a) (b) (c) to opposite poles (1) It may be inheritance of a Y-linked trait Correct sequence of events in meiosis is (2) Affected individuals cannot be homozygous (1) (c). (4) Both (1) & (3) (1) Two (2) Three 101. Generation III (b) – XXc in Rio de Janeiro 108. known as : the ovary? (a) Hibernation (b) Aestivation Candytuft. How many of the plants. are avoid the stress by entering a stage of suspended characterized by development of false septum inside development. How many of the following statement(s) is/are correct? (4) Reduction in species diversity (a) The loudness of a sound that a person can 100. (3) Endonucleolytic cleavage of splice junctions of (d) Plants growing near the boundary wall act as hnRNA by snRNA barriers for sound pollution and act as dust catchers. (b) & (d) (4) (b) & (c) 105. Gossypium. given in box. Dianthus. (d) & (a) (2) (b). Mustard (2) Apple. During the ecological succession. Mustard Mark correct option (1) Three (2) Four (1) (a) & (b) (2) (d) only (3) Two (4) Five (3) (a). Buttercup 107. Garlic. Thalamus is not fused with the wall of ovary in (1) Guava.) – Largest Rhino (2) Electron transport chain Project in India (3) Lactic acid fermentation (4) World Summit on Sustainable Development – Held in Johannesburg (4) EMP pathway (10) . might 104. Aloe. (a). (c) Conform (d) Diapause Makoi. (b) – (T). true and ‘F’. If the growing point of ________ is exposed to long 117. (b) – (F). 115. Which of the following components are matched a correct sequence : incorrectly? (a) Hybridisation using labelled VNTR probe (1) CMP 11 – Paris – 2012 (b) Digestion of DNA by restriction endonucleases (2) COP 3 – Kyoto – 1997 (c) Autoradiography (d) Transferring of separated DNA fragments to (3) CMP 3 – Bali – 2007 synthetic membrane (4) COP 15 – Copenhagen – 2009 Find out the correct option. Fucus and Polysiphonia reproduce sexually by possessing (1) Motile male and non-motile female gametes (1) Free RNA molecules (2) Heterogametes (2) Ability to multiply in animal cells (3) Protein coat (3) Non-motile male and female gametes (4) Ribonucleotides (4) Motile male and female gametes 120. Sporophyte is not free living but attached to the (1) (d) (b) (c) (a) photosynthetic dorsiventral thalloid gametophyte and derives nourishment from it in the life cycle of (2) (b) (d) (a) (c) (1) Funaria (2) Pteris (3) (b) (d) (c) (a) (3) Ginkgo (4) Marchantia (4) (b) (a) (d) (c) (11) . (c) – (F). (c) – (T). Plant growth regulator synthesized in large amount (d) The Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) by tissue undergoing senescence and ripening fruits Act was passed in 1974 is bioassayed by Find the correct option (here ‘T’.Mock Test for NEET-2017 Complete Syllabus Test 109. Choose the wrongly matched pair and peroxisomes are (1) Deoxyribonucleoside triphosphate – Provide (1) Components of endomembrane system energy for polymerisation in DNA replication (2) Nucleosome – In Chlamydomonas and Nostoc (2) Semi-autonomous organelles (3) QB bacteriophage – Mutate and evolve faster (3) Single membrane bound organelles (4) Lac operon – Under negative and positive (4) Involved in translation process regulation 110. vacuoles. lysosomes 116. Read the following statements : the position of oldest formed layer of secondary phloem in a dicot stem? (a) Particulate matter can be removed by catalytic convertors (1) Just inside the vascular cambium (b) BOD is a measure of oxygen required by aerobic (2) Just inside the crushed primary phloem chemoautotrophs for the biochemical degradation of organic materials in water (3) Just outer side of medulla (c) All the interstate buses in Delhi were converted (4) Just outerside of vascular cambium to run on CNG at the end of 2002 112. (d) – (T) (3) (a) – (F). (d) – (T) (4) Chlorophyll preservation test 119. The walls are embedded with silica and thus days and the leaves to short days no flowers appear indestructible in but in the opposite case plant duly flowers. (b) – (F). (d) – (T) (2) Root growth inhibition test (2) (a) – (T). (1) Primitive relatives of animals (1) Soyabean (2) Tobacco (2) Saprobic protists (3) Chief producers of oceans (3) Xanthium (4) Sugarbeet (4) Whirling whips 111. (c) – (F). Arrange the following steps of DNA fingerprinting in 114. false) (1) Triple response test (1) (a) – (F). Viroids resemble to tobacco mosaic virus in 113. (d) – (F) (3) Avena curvature test (4) (a) – (F). Which of the following option correctly represents 118. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum. (b) – (T). (c) – (T). HPO24 (4) Zn2+. Find out the pairs. If one can induce parthenocarpy through the (1) In yeast. Cl– (2) Cu2+. Azospirillum (iv) VAM (3) Metabolism (v) Clot buster (4) Intrinsic growth (1) a – (i) & (v) (2) c – (ii) & (iii) (3) d – (i) & (iii) (4) b – (i). P (1) Volvox (2) Ectocarpus (3) C. asci are arranged in ascocarps application of growth substances. Mn2+ 122. 4 – D (4) Cristae – Homologous to mesosomes 133.Complete Syllabus Test Mock Test for NEET-2017 121. Effect of root pressure is observable at most of the ATPs are synthesized as a result of (1) Oxidative phosphorylation in cytoplasm and (1) Night when evaporation is high mitochondria (2) Special openings of veins near the tip of grass (2) Substrate level phosphorylation in cytoplasm stem (3) Oxidative phosphorylation in mitochondria (3) Early morning when absorption is high (4) Oxidative and substrate level phosphorylation in (4) Evening when transpiration and absorption both cytoplasm low 134. Select the wrongly matched pair. Most algal genera are haplontic. Lateral bud is capable of giving rise to new offsprings in 131. 130. which are correctly matched. which fruit would (2) Common mushrooms and toadstools are edible you select to induce parthenocarpy? fungi (1) Garden pea (2) Pomegranate (3) Agaricus. Which one of the following pairs of elements helps possesses chlorophyll-a and non-cellulosic cell wall? to maintain cation-anion balance in cells? (1) Ulothrix (2) Alternaria (1) K+. Spirogyra and Neurospora cannot reproduce by zoospores (3) Guava (4) Coconut (4) Albugo candida and Puccinia graminis grow on 128. The protoplasts of two plants are brought in contact (1) Cisternae – Site of formation of glycoprotein and made to fuse by means of and glycolipids in Golgi complex (1) Cellulase and PEG (2) Stroma – Enzymes of Calvin cycle (2) Sodium nitrate (3) Thylakoids – Flattened membranous sacs in (3) Pectinase and protease chloroplast (4) Polyvinyl alcohol and 2. Glomus (ii) Statins all living organisms is c. Breeding and development of cultivars resistant to (1) Temperate broad leaf forest – Quercus diseases reduce the dependence on use of (2) Well developed xylem – Hydrilla (1) Bacteriocides and biofertilisers (3) Clay soil – High water holding capacity (2) Biofertilisers and bioweedicides (3) Fungicides and nematicides (4) Ecological equivalents – Owl and cat (4) Both (1) & (3) 123. 127. Streptococcus (i) Organic farming 124. 126. Choose the correct statement. Most obvious and technically complicated feature of b. Reservoir is located in earth's crust in nutrient cycles wheat plant as parasites like 135. During aerobic respiration of glucose in a plant cell. Fe3+ (3) Spirogyra (4) Anabaena (3) NO2 . N (4) N. Which of the following filamentous organisms 129. P (3) Chlamydomonas (4) Spirogyra (12) . Monascus purpureus (iii) Solubilisation of (1) Self consciousness phosphate (2) Ability to sense their surroundings d. C (2) S. except (1) P. (1) Bryophyllum (2) Sweet potato Column–I Column–II (3) Adiantum (4) Ginger a. Which of the following pair is wrongly matched? 132. (iii) & (iv) 125. Cytochrome oxidase enzyme has ____ as the 140. used as wing bases covers (4) Its endonuclease action does not involve water (b) Two thoracic and eight abdominal spiracles are molecules present in cockroach 137. Select the odd one out w.Mock Test for NEET-2017 Complete Syllabus Test 136. the first type II restriction endonuclease.t. Avascular and hence easily transplantable parts of second polar body human eye include (3) Secondary spermatocyte. (3) Three (4) Four (13) . secondary oocyte. secondary oocyte and 146.t. (B) and (C) correctly. Haem (1) Primary spermatocyte. DNA from the given (a) (b) (c) (d) options. (1) T T T T (1) Thymidine (2) Thymine (2) F F F T (3) Thymosine (4) Thymidylic acid (3) T T F T 139. primary oocyte and first polar body (3) Cu2+.t. (B) and group.21. blanks (A). the first set of haploid cells inorganic cofactor while _____ as its prosthetic to be formed in testes and ovaries are (A). Secretory (2) FSH. Regression of a well developed corpus luteum and its (4) T F F T involution in a healthy nonpregnant female is caused 144. NAD (2) Fe2+. (1) Lens (2) Ciliary bodies and first polar body (3) Choroid (4) All of these (4) Secondary spermatocyte. During gametogenesis. Select the option which fills the Choose the correct option which fills the blanks. Menstrual 145. except absent in females (1) Presence of schizocoelom (b) Female amphibians have copulatory pads on first (2) Presence of metamerism digit of forelimbs during breeding season (3) Protostomic mode of development (c) Female Ascaris is longer than the males and lacks cloaca (4) Presence of haemocoel (d) Male cockroaches have anal styles which are 142. Hind II. a characteristic mushroom (3) Pepsin (4) Steapsin gland is present in 6th – 7th abdominal segments 138. (1) One (2) Two (b) Africa is called cradle of human evolution.r. Luteal (3) Urinary bladder (4) Urethra (3) LH. Consider the following statements (a–d) about recognition site cockroach and choose the correct option w.r. The digit 3 in this (2) Only (b) is correct number indicates that (3) Both (a) & (b) are correct (1) It is a hydrolase enzyme (4) Both (a) & (b) are incorrect (2) It cleaves the phosphodiester sequence three nucleotides away from the palindromic 143. NADP (2) Secondary spermatocyte.t.t. type of epithelium in the by decrease in the concentration of _____ hormone excretory tract which is in ______ phase of menstrual cycle (1) Renal pelvis (2) Ureters (1) LH. true (3) It denatures the DNA by breaking the three and false statements. primary oocyte. hydrogen bonds between guanine and cytonsine (a) Elytra are metathoracic wings.4. An overdose of proton pump inhibitors will affect the (c) The 10th segment of female cockroach bears activity of unjointed anal styles which are absent in males (1) Enterokinase (2) Trypsin (d) In male cockroach. 141.r. Consider the following statements and choose the absent in females.1.C.r. Select the odd one out w. number 3. all the features. sexual polar body dimorphism in animals. males have pelvic claspers which are w. correct option from the choices given below How many statements out of the above are correct? (a) Mitochondrial DNA isolated from African populations has least variations or mutations. All annelids and arthropods are similar to each other (a) In Pristis. is (1) Only (a) is correct coded by E. (C) respectively. Proliferative (4) LH. Consider the following statements w.r. NAD (4) Haem. first 147. (1) Zn2+ . Periplaneta. Araneus 152.t. (2) Uvula prevents the entry of food in the glottis (1) The gp 120 of the virus binds with CD-4 (3) Epiglottis prevents the entry of food in receptors of target cells. Choose the correct match w. In case of a female who suffers from anovulation but 156. (3) Muscular dystrophy (4) Muscular tetany controlled by autonomic plexus 151. (1) Malpighian tubules – Excretory structures at the junction of foregut and (4) Both (1) & (2) are correct midgut 154.r. The failure of opening of Ca2+ ion channels on the considered as an indirect transfer method? membrane of a neuron will result in (1) Biolistics (1) Lack of generation of impulses (2) Electroporation (2) Lack of transmission of impulse on axolemma (3) Ca2+ mediated gene transfer (3) Lack of repolarization of axolemma (4) Retrovirus mediated gene transfer (4) Lack of release of neurotransmitter from axon 150. Which of the following options is correct w. causes appearance of syndrome 159. In a population of (100) individuals. (3) Can accept blood from persons with AB as well as other groups of blood. Echinus population? 160. nasopharynx (2) HIV multiples in the macrophages which are also (4) Fructose is transported exclusively by facilitated called HIV factories diffusion. Establishment of biological body clock by releasing has normal physiological conditions available for melatonin hormone is the function of carrying out fertilization and embryonic development.t. Which of the (3) 49 (4) 7 following cells in the human tissues do not have 153. Select the incorrect statement w. of muscles and corresponding reduction in their 158. Periplaneta positive blood group americana. Person with AB positive blood group mesodermal origin? (1) Can donate the blood to a recipient with A (1) Fibroblasts (2) Mast cells positive blood group (3) Macroglia (4) Microglia (2) Can donate the blood to a recipient with B 161. When parietal cells are stimulated. What is the (3) Pheretima. AIDS.r. A tissue is a group of cells performing common (1) 42 (2) 36 functions and having common origin. it cannot be absorbed against (3) The destruction of cytotoxic T cells by HIV a concentration gradient. (9) have attached (2) Buthus. Rattus. Interferons are included in (2) Hepatic caeca – 6-8 blind tubules at the (1) Physical barriers (2) Physiological barriers junction of gizzard and (3) Cellular barriers (4) Cytokine barriers midgut to produce 155. (1) Pila. Macrobrachium. therefore. (1) Pituitary gland’s adenohypophysis the preferred ART should be (2) Pineal gland (1) ZIFT (2) GIFT (3) Hypothalamus (3) ET (4) ICSI (4) Pituitary gland’s neurohypophysis 149.t. Ascaris ear lobes which is a recessive character. Apis number of heterozygotes for this characteristic in the (4) Octopus. digestion and absorption? (1) Poliomyelitis (2) Hashimoto's disease (1) Deglutition is totally an involuntary process. Loligo. Which of the following groups includes all (4) Being HIV positive and having AIDS are two protostomic metamerically segmented separate conditions as appearance of syndrome schizocoelomates? does not occur for a long time after virus entry.r. Genetic disorder leading to progressive degeneration terminals.Complete Syllabus Test Mock Test for NEET-2017 148. strength is deglutition mechanism. Which of the following methods of gene transfer is 157. they secrete digestive enzymes (1) HCl and intrinsic factor (3) Salivary glands – Two secretory parts and (2) HCl and pepsinogen four receptacles opening in (3) HCO3– and intrinsic factor pharynx (4) HCl and HCO3– (4) Both (2) & (3) are correct (14) . different parts of (1) Completely immovable as exist between skull the brain and their respective function. Consider the following statements w. (b) & (d) (2) (b) & (d) medium (3) (b) only (4) (a). Which of the following is not a component of NADP? (1) A vitamin (1) Mg2+ (2) Ca2+ (2) Adenine (3) Na+ (4) K+ (3) Haem as a prosthetic group 168.t. Right (4) 50 ml.r. Partial pressure of 104 mm of Hg in the alveoli ventricular musculature. Synarthrose type of joints are 170.r. (b). total amount of oxygen it will release into muscles is ______ with the oxy-Hb curve shifting to _______ (d) The heart beat rate is inversely proportional to side. oxygenates the capillary blood. the load. The cations which play an important role in formation (3) Desmosome (4) Hemidesmosome of a coagulum of fibrin proteins in the walls of damaged blood vessels are 163. The type of cell junction which adheres a cell firmly (1) One (2) Two to the laminin proteins in its basal lamina is (3) Three (4) Four (1) Tight junction (2) Adhering junction 167. Select the incorrect match w. gel (2) Communicable from an infected mother to the electrophoresis developing foetus across the placenta (a) The gel for isolation of DNA fragments on the (3) Characterized by painful chancres on external basis of their sizes. logical 166. between mandible and mandibular archs (2) Medulla oblongata – Emesis reflex (4) Slightly compressible as in pubic symphysis (3) Cerebellum – Intelligence. in lac z’ sequence of pUC 18 plasmid.g. If a gene encoding for ‘ADA’ enzyme is incorporated the process. the resultant (c) Separation of DNA fragments is according to recombinant bacteria in which plasmids are inserted their sizes as they move through sieves in the will be agarose gel. Left (2) 5 ml. Select the option which fills blanks correctly. Syphilis. area (b) End diastolic volume determines the ‘Pre-load’ on 171.t. (4) Incurable at all stages in an affected human (b) DNA fragments are separated according to their charge only. systemic blood pressure according to Marey’s law. (2) White is color on ‘X-gal’ containing selection Which of the following sets contains only incorrect medium statements? (3) Blue is color on ‘X-gal’ containing selection (1) (a). bones (1) Amygdala – Defense castle of (2) Slightly compressible as in intervertebral discs body (3) Freely movable e.Mock Test for NEET-2017 Complete Syllabus Test 162. functioning of reasoning and the heart wernicke's association area (a) When venous return increases. the sizes of fragments not affecting 169.t. a genitals which have necrotic bases mucopolysaccharide. Left How many of the above statements are correct? (3) 150 ml. (1) Having functional lac z’ gene coding for (d) DNA fragments move towards cathode on the galactosidase basis of the charge on them. is (4) Phosphate (1) Preventable by using non-medicated IUDs 164. Consider the following statements w. Right (15) . When 1000 ml of (c) Force of contraction of ventricular wall and hence this oxygenated blood is pumped to the striated cardiac output are directly proportional to pre .r. is made of agarose. muscle tissue undergoing strenuous exercise. (c) & (d) (4) Both (1) & (3) 165. it stretches or lengthens the ventricular muscle fibres so force (4) Cerebrum – Broca’s motor speech of contraction increases. a bacterial STD caused by Treponema.. (1) 15 ml. retaining tolerant to attack of ‘corn borer’ pest was water in the nephrons (1) Cry I Ab (2) Cry II Ab (4) All of these are correct (3) Cry I Ac (4) Cry II Ac 175.r. Inbreeding depression. reducing urine elimination (1) Three (2) Four (2) Stimulation of macula densa cells of DCT to stop (3) Five (4) Six renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system 179. Select the correct option (4) Ringworm spread through direct contact or by sharing clothes and towels with infected (1) Only (a) is correct individuals. It can be attributed to (1) Anamnestic response generated by memory (2) Corpora allata gland cells (3) Prothoracic glands (2) Excess build up of epitopes in the body during (4) Conglobate gland a secondary response 177. origin of life conditions. Dehydration causes increase in the osmolarity of (c) Alveolar macrophages(d) Histiocytes body fluids triggering (e) Macroglia (f) PMNL (1) Release of ADH from hypothalamus. Consider the following statements w. growth rate in beef cattle is (2) Ti Plasmid (1) Outcrossing (2) Crossbreeding (3) Bacterial artificial chromosome (3) Interspecific mating (4) Outbreeding (4) Yeast episomal plasmid (16) . Select the incorrect statement w. (a) Earliest autotrophs were oxygenic photoautotrophs. (3) Ringworm is caused by nematode parasites or round worms which have circular bodies in cross (b) Chemical origin of life occurred in absence of section. Comparison of the peaks obtained when the 176. immune system reactions (1) Ringworm infections thrives in parts of body (4) Faster activation of both CD-4 and CD-8 Tcells having high moisture and high temperature 173.t. Moulting hormone ‘ ecdysone’ of cockroach. ringworm (3) Combined action of non-specific and specific infection in humans.Complete Syllabus Test Mock Test for NEET-2017 172. How many of the following are examples of (3) Both (a) & (b) are correct macrophages? (4) Both (a) & (b) are incorrect (a) Microglia (b) Kupffer cells 174. (2) Only (b) is correct 178.t. It can be overcome by many SCID affected human is breeding options but the most preferable method for (1) Retrovirus animals that are below average in productivity in milk production. which is a result of continuous mating between related individuals. results in reduced 180. The ideal cloning vector for delivering ADA cDNA into fertility and productivity. which antibody titre of blood is plotted against time reveals controls its paurometabolous development is a much higher peak during secondary immune secreted by response in comparison to primary immune (1) Corpora cardiaca glands response. on earth (2) Ringworm in groin area is called Tinea cruis. The "cry" gene inserted in ‘Bt cotton’ which made it (3) Enhanced tubular secretion of Na+.r. molecular oxygen in warm little ponds.