Legal Med1. The following are authorized to perform autopsies. a. Barangay health workers b. Medical officers of the PNP Crime Lab c. Medical staff of the FBI d. None of the above Rationale: The key to this question is whether an official or non-offical autopsy is performed. I would assume that the following refers to an official autopsy, which is mandated by law, for unnatural causes of death. Using this line of reasoning, only the following individuals would be allowed to perform an official autopsy: Medico-legal of PNP, Medico-legal of NBI, Municipal/Health Officers who are considered ex officio medical officers, those authorized by an ordinance or thru request from chief of police, mayor, or prosecutor. 2. After a patient was brought to the hospital, he was pronounced dead after 2 hours of an acute myocardial infarction. The relatives noted that he was still warm and his body was still supple. The resident explained that the complete relaxation and softening of all the muscles found immediately after death is normal and is called: a. Period of muscular flaccidity b. Stage of primary flaccidity c. Cadaveric flaccidity d. Rigor mortis Rationale: Since the patient died less than 6 hours, the patient is in the stage of primary flaccidity. During this stage, the muscles are relaxed and capable of contracting when stimulated. 3. A body was found dead at a garbage dump in Rizal. At the time, the whole body was found to be completely stiffened. The time of death is at least: a. 6 hours b. 12 hours c. 18 hours d. 24 hours Rationale: The stage of rigor mortis or gradual stiffening occurs between 6-24 hours. 4. Nurse Ofel decided that her 55 y/o patient had suffered enough from the pain of bronocogenic carcinoma. She decided to end his suffering by giving him 1000 mg of oxycodone. As a result, the patient dies. She is most probably guilty of: a. Infanticide b. Murder c. Parricide d. Homicide Rationale: The following would fall under the criteria of murder. The doctor played an active participation in the death of a person and with explicit intent to end his life. 5. Sgt. Tony was found guilty of the crime of espionage. He was sentenced to death. The mode of judicial death favoured by the military is: a. Death by tickling b. Death by electrocution c. Death my musketry d. Death by lethal injection Rationale: Could not find this in any of the sources, but traditionally military death is through death by firing squad. 6. A dead body must be buried within 48 hours except for the following conditions: a. If the patient dies of some dangerous communicable disease b. The body is embalmed c. When it is still a subject matter legal investigation d. None of the above Rationale: The following are the exceptions to burial within 48 hours, including subject of investigation, authorized by the local health authorities that may be buried more than 48H, and impliedly when embalmed. 7. A grandmother was insisting that her helper be charged with infanticide for the death of her 5 day old grandson. The assistant City Prosecutor disagreed and said that an infant is defined an infanticide as: a. A newborn up to 28 days old b. A baby up to 2 years old c. A child less than 3 days old d. A child less than 2 months old Rationale: Infanticide is defined as the killing of a child less than 3 days old. 8. Which of the following statements is true regarding Post Mortem Hypostasis a. It is a result of the inaction of gravity on the blood b. It is found in the most dependent portions of the body c. It is accompanied with injuries to the skin d. It occurs 36 hours after death Agency and partnerships survive the death d. The body is embalmed c. authorized by the local health authorities that may be buried more than 48H. Suicide d. Violent death b. Death from chronic illness c. None of the above Rationale: The following are the exceptions to burial within 48 hours. Criminal liability is extinguished Rationale: The following is false because death causes dissolution/extinction of certain relationships including marriage. If the patient dies of some dangerous communicable disease b. and impliedly when embalmed. including subject of investigation. Euthanasia b. When it is still a subject matter of legal investigation d. No injury of the skin 9. 12. partnership. Suicide d. Civil personality is extinguished by death b. Patients who are dead on arrival . This is the deliberate and painless acceleration of death of a person usually suffering from an incurable and distressing illness: a. What manner of death need not be autopsied? a. Does not appear elevated from the rest of the skin. A dead body must be buried within 48 hours except for the following conditions: a. The following is significant in exact determination of death except: a. Judicial death c. Succession happens at the exact moment of death c. Involves the superficial layer of the skin.Rationale: The followinga are the characteristics of post-mortem hypostasis Occurs in the most dependent areas. Color is uniform. 10. agencies. 11. Homicide Rationale: Euthanasia also known as mercy killing is the acceleration of death of a person who is suffering from a terminal illness.. Cadaveric spasm c. None of the above Rationale: The following falls under natural death or a fatality caused solely by disease i. Director of NBI. It indicates the position of the body prior to death b. pneumonia. Secondary flaccidity d. This is the instantaneous rigidity of the muscles which occurs at the moment of death due to extreme nervous tension.Rationale: For individuals who died from natural causes. Judges of the RTC. The following are inquest officers who are charged by the state to inquire into the manner and cause of death: a. A 65 year old man was rushed to the DLSUMC-ER after suffering severe chest pains while exercising in the stair climber at Fitness Gym. etc. The following are the medicolegal implications of livor mortis: a. SolGen 14. It may indicate time of death d. cancer.e. All of the above Rationale: The following individuals are responsible for death investigations Provincial and City Prosecutors. 13. Violent death c. Justices of the Court of Appeals c. exhaustion. and injury to the nervous system: a. Rigor mortis b. Natural death d. MTC. The manner of death of the man is: a. Color of the lividity is not indicative of the cause of death c. None of the above Rationale: occurs in the most extensive areas of the most dependent portions of the body to determine the position of the body when the person died. 16. He was pronounced dead after being diagnosed with a massive myocardial infarction. Instantaneous death b. Putrefaction . 15. Provincial and City Prosecutors b. it is non-official/non medico legal autopsy. If one is performed. Justices of the Sandiganbayan d. autopsies need not to be performed. Contact fire b. Fragmentation of the bullet . All of the above Rationale: Dactyloscopy is the art of indentification by comparison of fingerprints. None of the above Rationale: The law of multiplicity of evidence is defined as the greater the number of points of similarities and dissimilarities of 2 persons compared. Dental identification. Law of multiplicity of evidence in identification b. EXCEPT: a. 20. Some scientific methods of identification used are the following. Dental identification c. blood stains. All of the above d. Finger printing b. Identification of hair. Poroscopy d. fibers 19. the greater is the probability for the conclusion to be correct is found in: a. 17. Handwriting d. Dactylography b.Rationale: C and D refer to flaccidity so the two are automatically eliminated. Identification by comparison and exclusion c. The art of identification by comparison of fingerprint: a. handwriting. Identification of skeleton e. Identification of blood. The greater the number of points of similarities and dissimilarities of two persons compared. Acute angular approach of the bullet d. the answer is B. Determination of Sex. 18. A and B are the only choices left. Therefore. It is the study and utilization of fingerprints. the great the probability for the conclusion to be correct. A refers to GRADUAL rigidity while B refers to instantaneous rigidity. However. Age. Identification of close friend and relative Rationale: The following are the scientific methods of identification Fingerprinting. Identification of skeleton. Instances when the size of the entrance wound is bigger than the caliber of the firearm used EXCEPT: a. Dactyloscopy c. Deformity of the bullet c. Personal evidence b. The following are types of medical evidences. Structure b. EXCEPT: a. In identification. and physical evidence. Which of the following statements is WRONG? a. truth serum. bullet might have entered the skin sidewise. In determining the sex of a skeleton which bone is NOT used: a. C. The commonly used methods of deception detection are the following. Mental memory d. Testimonial evidence c. Administration of truth serum c. 22. Tibia Rationale: For sex the pelvis.Rationale: The following are the situations wherein the wound of entrance bigger than the caliber: in contact or near fire. EXCEPT: a. and humerus are used to determine sex. skull femur. Therefore. testimonial evidence. The male pelvis is heavier in construction than the female pelvis . Use of electro-encephalogram Rationale: The following are used to determine deception detection: polygraphic lie detector machine. deformity of the bullet which entered. Autoptic evidence Rationale: Four types of medical evidences include autoptic or real evidence. Use of polygraph or lie detection machine b. 24. the answer is A. the characteristics of an individual that may not easily by changed are the following. and D are not easily changed. and acute angular approach of the bullet 21. Speech c. 23. word association test. experimental evidence or documentary evidence. Experimental evidence d. and hypnotism. sternum. Pelvis b. Sternum d. Skull c. Hypnotism d. Gait Rationale: B. EXCEPT: a. psychological stress evaluator. 25. incisions. The styloid process is longer and more slender is female bones d. Perforating wound Rationale: Perforating wounds are open wounds. 26. The product of combustion produced by the firearms are the following EXCEPT: a. Examples of perforating wounds would be stab wounds caused by penetration of a sharp-pointed instrument. 29. Contusion c. Hematoma b. Mastoid process is longer in male bones Rationale: The male cranium has less curvature than the female cranium. Determination of the distance from the assailant to the victim c. Determination of relative position of the victim from the assailant d. Differentiation between entrance and exit of gunshot wounds b. d. The identification of fire arms or ballistics is important in firearms injuries since it helps in the: a. which is to determine whether the gun that is the subject of the investigation was the same gun used or fired. The female cranium has a less curved shaft c. Other types of open wounds include abrasions. are all products of combustion in close contact injuries . and lacerated wounds. Smudging b. Tattooing. Tattooing c. Identification of the weapon used Rationale: The primary person of ballistics testing is for firearm identification. ? a. Contusion collar Rationale: Smudging. Contusion collar. 28. ? Stab wound Petechiae Lacerated wound 27. Singeeing d.b. c. The following are classified as closed wounds EXCEPT: a. Sprain d. b. . Stage of secondary flaccidity d. Judges of the Regional Trial Courts c. MTC. Justices of the Supreme Court Rationale: The following are authorized to make death investigations: provincial and city prosecutors. algor mortis.C are the three kinds of death. Somatic death b. The Medico-Legal importance is to approximate the time of death: a. The following officials of the Government are authorized to make death investigations. Cadaveric spasm d. None of the above Rationale: A. 32. B. livor mortis. C are all changes that take place in the muscles of the body after death. The different changes that take place in the muscles of the body after death: a. 33.B. 31. SolGen. Rigor mortis b. All of the above Rationale: The following are used to determine the time of death: pallor mortis. judges of the RTC. and decomposition. I think they meant d to be all of the above. Kinds of death: a. Provincial or City Prosecutors b. Stage of primary flaccidity b. Director of the Philippine National Police e.30. Stage of postmortem rigidity c. rigor mortis. Director of the NBI. Cellular death d. EXCEPT: a. Apparent death c. just choose A. or C since all three are the types of death. If the following is not changed for the exam. None of the above Rationale: A. B. Cadaveric spasm is used to determine the nature of death. Director of the National Bureau of Investigation d. All of the above e. Muscular contraction c. but between the two choices I do not think that justices of the SC are authorized to make death investigations since they are an appellate court. There was no mention of D and E. any of the above can perform these. hanging. Death by hanging e. Members of the medical staff of accredited hospitals d. Death by electrocution d. All of the above e. Expert in his/her field of specialty c. 38. . Unbiased in his/her testimony b. Death by musketry c. Death by mercy killing or euthanasia b. this question seems to pertain to unofficial autopsy. All of the above e. Things demanded in a medical witness: a. None of the above Rationale: Digest. 37. Experienced in his/her field of specialty d. “cruel and unusual punishment shall not be inflicted. gas chamber.1 Par.34. EXCEPT: a. A medical witness like any expert witness must possess the following traits. The unburned or partially burned powder grains embedded in the skin surrounding the point of entry in gunshot wound produce: . and the exact cause of death cannot be ascertained and the need for further inquiry or examination. Therefore. Health officers b. Medical officers of the law enforcement agencies c. musketry. 35. identity of the person is not definite. The deceased is a muslim b. The different methods of judicial death are the following. The identity of the deceased is not yet established d. III Sec. The following officers are authorized to perform autopsies and dissections: a. None of the above Rationale: Unlike question 1. Permission for cremation may not be granted when: a. Const. Death is due to natural causes c. Death by gas chamber Rationale: Judicial deaths – Art. 36. Due to infectious diseases Rationale: Three conditions in which permission for cremation is not granted includes if the deceased left a note. electrocution. 19 Phil. the presumption is that one or more bullets has been lodged in the body: a. 39. Tattooing Stippling Peppering All of the above None of the above Rationale: Stippling (tattooing): Unburned powder and debris. Slight physical injury d. d. Cadaveric spasm b. The whole body becomes rigid due to the contraction the muscles appearing three to six hours after death: a. When the injuries inflicted will incapacitate an individual is to do his usual activities or medical attendance from ten to thirty days: a. If the number of gunshot wounds of entrance and exit found in the body of the victim is even. 40. c. If odd. Abortion b. Less serious physical injury b. Physical deformity Rationale: Slight-0-9 days. Odd and even rule c.>30 days 42. Less Serious. b.>9 and <30 days.a. the presumption is that no bullet is lodged in the body. Law in duplicity . Larger and heavier so travels farther. Law of multiplicity b. Serious physical injury c. Infanticidal death d. Killing of a child less than three days old: a. Murder c. Muscular contraction d. Rigor mortis Rationale: Rigor mortis is defined as the symmetrical rigidity of all muscles 3-6 hrs after death used to determine the approximate time of death. causing punctate abrasions on target. Heat stiffening c. e. Serious. Parricidal death Rationale: Infanticide is defined as a killing of a child less than three days old. 41. Does not wipe off. food an arm or leg or lost the use of said member. A young man was stabbed in the abdomen developed generalized peritonitis and died. A person lost the power of speech after being physically assaulted. or stellate in shape. 46. Burn c. B. lost an eye. The offender is liable for: a. Less serious physical injury d. which are usually bigger. Underlying cause of death Rationale: The stab wound is the primary cause of death. The peritonitis is the secondary cayse of death. a hand. . the power to hear or smell. Contusion collar b. 45. D refer to the point of entry. 43. 44. Mutilation b. Tattooing or smudging c. Edges of the wound are inverted Rationale: A. Stabbing d. Immediate cause of death d. Law on numbers Rationale: Odd and Even Rule in GSW is if the entrance and exit wound is even so presumption that no bullet is lodged in the body. Drowning b. Peritonitis is the: a. and incapacitated for the work in which he was habitually engaged. Proximate cause of death c. Which of the following is the characteristic of a gunshot wound of exit? a. Serious physical injury Rationale: Serious physical injury involves lost of the use of speech. Pugilistic attitude is found: a.d. Manner of death b. which is defined as the injury or disease that was survived for a longer period of time. irregular. Gunshot wound Rationale: Pugilistic attitude refers to the classic flexion of the upper extremities as the body cools. Slight physical injury c. Wound larger than the bullet d. C refers to point of exit wounds. while the purpose of a medicolegal officer is to make a report and testify before a court c. while a medico-legal officer records all bodily injuries d. All of the above Rationale: All of the following are the differences between an ordinary physician and a medicolegal officer. A physician who specializes or is involved primarily with medico-legal duties is known as: a. To determine the power make and the caliber of the gun used in the killing or inflicting of injury on the victim d. To determine the distance of the muzzle of the wounding gun from the victim b. A physician witness who testifies in court on matters he perceived from his patient in the course of physician-patient relationship is considered as an: a. Paraffin test is performed at the dorsum of the hands of the suspect/assailant in the shooting incident: a. The purpose of an ordinary physician examining a patient is to arrive at a definite diagnosis so that proper treatment can be administered.47. Distinction between an ordinary physician and a medico-legal officer are the following: a. 48. Coroner d. or medicolegal expert. Medical examiner c. Paid witness d. The determine whether it is possible that the suspect could have fired the gun Rationale: The paraffin test is used to determine whether a particular subject or suspect has recently fired a gun or not. Ordinary witness c. All of the above . 49. while a medico-legal officer sees injury on the point of view of cause b. None of the above Rationale: Definition of a medico-legal officer aka medical jurist. Minor injuries are ignored by an ordinary physician. To approximate how many times the offender fired the gun c. Medico-legal officer b. Expert witness b. 50. medical examiner. Ordinary physician sees an injury on the viewpoint of treatment. Documentary evidence Rationale: The following is the definition of direct evidence. It is an expressed acknowledgement by the accused in a criminal case of the truth of his guilt as to the crime charged: a. phosphoric acid. Reasons for the inadmissibility to the court of the result of lie detector examination: a. All of the above Rationale: Confession is the expressed acknowledgement by the accused in a criminal case of the truth of his guilt as to the crime charged. The test cannot be relied upon because of many errors d. Circumstantial evidence b. 54. All of the above Rationale: Stage of post-mortem rigidity ( CADAVERIC RIGIDITY . Preponderance of evidence d. and the reaction become acidic in the muscle after death is found in: a. Admission c. Direct evidence is evidence that proves the fact in dispute without the aid of interference or presumption. Confession b. Cadaveric rigidity c. Direct evidence c. All of the above Rationale: All of the following contribute to the inadmissibility 53. DEATH STRUGGLE OF MUSCLES OR RIGOR MORTIS) . Postmortem rigidity b.Rationale: An ordinary witness is defined as a person who goes to court and testifies on matters he has perceived. Interrogation d. 51. Polygraph techniques are still in the experimental stage b. 52. There is no way to assure that a qualified examiner administered the test c. Rigor mortis d. The kind of evidence necessary for conviction which proves the fact in dispute without the aid of any inference or presumption and which correspond to the precise or actual point at issue: a. Increase of lactic acid. The other choices refer to close contact/near contact wounds.= whole body is rigid due to contraction of the muscles = starts at muscle of neck. earlier in warm = last from 2 to 3 days in temperate. warm: 24-48H cold weather 18-36H summer 55. 57. All of the above Rationale: All the following refer to the same thing. color is dull red. Abrasion collar b. Postmortem suggillation c. The relative position of the assailant to the victim in cases of gunshot wound can be determined by: . Postmortem lividity b. Death stiffening c. Cadaveric ridgity Rationale: The presence of tightly grasped hand indicates that muscle rigidity has occurred or rigor mortis has occurred. It is found in the most dependent portion of the body involving the superficial layer of the skin. Edges of gunshot wound are inverted d. Cadaveric spasm d. purplish. lower jaw = Reaction is acidic due to inc. of lactic acid = develops 3 to 6 hours after death in temperate. They are just different names. Rigor mortis b. Smaller point of entry in gunshot wound Rationale: A short range gunshot would is defined as 1-15cm. Postmortem hypostasis d. Tattooing or peppering c. Evidence of a short range wound would be edges of the gunshot would are inverted. Which would indicate that a gun was fired at short range: a. 58. and uniform. 56. not elevated which appears after death: a. The presence of a weapon is tightly grasped by the hand of a victim of shooting incident is an example of: a. Incise wound Rationale: Incise wounds are caused by sharp. Morally virgin d. b. Fingerprints are formed in the fetus in the ninth month of pregnancy d. Contusion collar Tattooing Peppering Singering Rationale: A contusion collar usually determines the point of entry of a bullet and would help to determine the relative position between the assailant or the victim or the trajectory of bullet. This term describes a woman who does not know anything about the sex act with an intact hymen: a. bladed instrument causing instrument. Finger printing is considered to be the most valuable method of identification and is universally used because of the following factors. Virgo-intacta c. Fingerprints are not changeable c. comes in contact with the skin and underlying tissue can produce the following. Prostitute . Contusion b. when forcible. 59. Fracture c. Concubinage Rationale: Sexual intercourse is not necessary in the crime of abduction. Seduction c.a. A heavy blunt instrument. 61. Adultery d. Abduction b. Fingers may be wounded or burned but the whole pattern will re-appear Rationale: Fingerprints are established by the FOURTH MONTH of pregnancy and not nine. EXCEPT: a. There are no two identical fingerprints b. c. the assailant can be charged with rape with abduction as an aggravating circumstance. d. EXCEPT: a. Sexual intercourse is not necessary in this crime: a. 60. Lacerated wound d. 62. Demi-virginity b. If sexual intercourse occurs. Forcible abduction c. a virgin. 65. and committed by means of deceit. Forcible abduction b. <12 and <18 years old. Adultery is defined as consensual relations with a MARRIED woman other than the husband. Simple seduction d. Vestibular mucosa d. Vaginal canal c. Married woman and the paramour who knew her to be married d. Those guilty of adultery who could be prosecuted: a. Consented abduction c. 63. Qualified seduction d. The woman and the paramour can be prosecuted. Hymen b.Rationale: A moral virgin is a woman who does know the nature of sexual life and not have experienced sexual relations. Man alone c. single or widow of good reputation. between the ages of 12-18. and the offender is a person in public authority. The most important finding in a genital examination is in the a. 64. . Qualified seduction Rationale: Elements of simple seduction include: seduction of a woman. Labia majora and minora Rationale: The hymen is used to determine whether there was forcibly entry especially in rape cases and in cases of child abuse. Virginity is a requirement in this crime: a. Therefore. The element of deceit is required in cases of: a. White slave trade Rationale: Elements of qualified seduction: abuse of trust. Simple seduction b. 66. Woman alone b. men should never admit to being a party to an adulterous relationship. Whole family Rationale: Digest. 69. Description c. Attempted stage .2 investigators who acts Mutt (arrogant and restless) and Jeff (sympathetic. Emotional appeal d. Emotional appeal d. Stern approach Rationale: Techniques of interrogation. Think BLEMS: Bluff on split-pair .utilizes harsh language and immediate response is demanded. Mutt and Jeff . Photography b.sympathetic and friendly to subject Stern approach . useful. Bluff on split-pair technique b. Mutt and Jeff . Stage of execution in which the victim would have died had it not been for timely medical intervention: a. Think BLEMS: Bluff on split-pair .67. Technique of interrogation whereby the question must be answered clearly and the interrogator utilizes harsh language: a. Mutt and jeff technique b. kind and friendly) Emotional appeal .utilizes harsh language and immediate response is demanded. and reliable means of preserving evidence is by: a. Sketching d.2 investigators who acts Mutt (arrogant and restless) and Jeff (sympathetic. Technique of interrogating where there are two or more personnel who allegedly participated in the commission of a crime and are interrogated separately and the results of their individual statements are not known to one another: a. Mutt and jeff technique c. 68. The most practical. Stern approach c.sympathetic and friendly to subject Stern approach . kind and friendly) Emotional appeal .all suspects are interrogated separately and the results of individual statements are not known to one another. Manikin method Rationale: Digest 70. Bluff on split-pair technique Rationale: Techniques of interrogation.all suspects are interrogated separately and the results of individual statements are not known to one another. Legislative branch b. Victim can live and survive even without medical attention: a. In the attempted stage. The most powerful among the three branches of government: a. Alternative stage Rationale: The following refers to the stages in the execution of crime.b. 71. Consummated stage c. 74. Principle of stare decisis d. Executive branch c. the act itself has not been executed so immediate medical attention is not needed. None of the above Rationale: The principle of stare decisis mandates lower courts to follow legal precedents set forth by the Supreme Court. 73. The average time required for death in drowning: a. Frustrated stage d. 2-5 min c. the act itself has already been executed so immediate medical attention is needed. which may at times reverse itself. Judiciary d. Alternative stage Rationale: The following refers to the stages in the execution of crime. It mandates all lower courts to follow legal principles in decisions promulgated by the Supreme Court: a. 72. 3-6 min . Attempted stage b. 5-10 min d. Consummated stage c. 1-3 min b. None of the above Rationale: The doctrine of separation of powers and checks and balances specifies that each branch of government has unique and specific powers and that no branch reigns supreme over the others. Frustrated stage d. In the consummated stage. Principle of res ipsa loquitor c. Principles of checks and balance b. Superficial b. A deep laceration involves more than one-half of the width of the hymen but not reaching the base. Statutory rape Rationale: Virginity is an element required in qualified seduction. >12 and <18 years old and the offender is a person of public authority. c. 77. Rape b. Once again. the degree of laceration is: a. Deep d. Complete c. Such trajectory is: a. Condition of a woman who permits any sexual liberties as long as they abstain from rupturing the hymen is called: a. b. the elements of qualified seduction are as follow: offended person is virgin. A complicated laceration involves laceration of the hymen and the surrounding tissues. A bullet that penetrates the skin and hits a bone may be deflected and change direction. True physical virginity Rationale: A demi virgin refers to a woman who permits any form of sexual liberties as long as they abstain from rupturing the hymen by a sexual act. Qualified seduction c. 78. A complete laceration involves the whole width but not beyond the base of the hymen. Simple seduction d. Demi-virginity b. 76. Bullet sporting movement Russia Missile disintegrating movement Ricochet bullet .Rationale: Submersion for 1 ½ minutes is considered fatal and the average time required for death in drowning is 2-5 minutes. 75. d. Virginity is an essential element in the crime of: a. Complicated Rationale: Superficial laceration does not go beyond one-half of the whole width of the hymen. False physical virginity c. If the hymenal laceration involves of ½ of the width of the hymen but does not reach the base. Virgo intacta d. Sexual intercourse d. Bullet trajectomy c. above 12. in addition to local effects in tissue caused by direct impact. In the examination of an alleged victim of sexual intercourse.g. Statutory rape Rationale: Statutory rape specifies carnal or sexual relations with minor as defined by the statute. but deceit is a necessary element. it indicates sexual relations with a female under 12 years old. Hydrostatic force b. and below 18 years old c. Which is not a requisite condition for the crime of seduction: a. Simple seduction b. through a hydraulic effect in liquid-filled tissues.Rationale: A ricochet bullet is defined as a bullet that hits a hard surface and changes direction especially when striking a hard surface at an angle. Qualified seduction d. Under the old law. It can either be A or D. hymenal laceration is said to be compound or complicated: a. Acts of lasciviousness c. When laceration is superimposed with infection c. When there is more than one point of laceration . 79. and moral ascendancy. Muzzle blast d. ending up in ejaculation is needed versus carnal knowledge only in rape (penis touching the tip of the labia). The most common form of deceit is the promise of marriage. Sexual intercourse e. Woman is unmarried. When laceration not involved the hymen but also the adjacent tissue d. 82. When physician cannot fully determine whether it is laceration or not b. abuse of trust. Shock waves Rationale: The term hydrostatic shock describes the observation that a penetrating projectile can produce remote wounding and incapacitating effects in living targets. Sexual act was committed by means of deceit Rationale: In simple seduction. the woman does not need to be virgin. When the bullet traverses an organ filled with fluid. contents within the organ are displaced radially away from the bullet path producing extensive laceration: a. regardless of consent. 81. 80. Carnal relation with a female under 12 years old is called: a. Seduction involves sexual intercourse between 12-18 years old. Woman is a virgin b. Diffusion lividity b. 86. which implies that the person has been dead for at least 6-24 hours. c. 83. Immediately after hearing a loud shot coming from the bedroom. Insertion of vibrator in the genital organ of the victim d. will fall under the crime of acts of lasciviousness or sexual assault. d. the parents forcibly open the door and find their 25 year old son dead with a gunshot wound at the right temple and with the butt of the fatal gun held tightly on the palm of the right hand. or rectum. Offender is a known AIDS carrier c.Rationale: A compound or complicated laceration involves the hymen and also the surrounding tissues such as the perineum. Insertion of the penis to the ears b. None of the above Rationale: Rape is defined as the forcibly insertion of the PENIS into the vagina. fingers.g. vaginal canal. The crime of rape is committed in the following circumstances: a. 84. This would indicate muscle rigidity and stiffening or the stage of rigor mortis.blood has already clotted. 85. Vasectomy c. None of the above Rationale: Hypostatic lividity-blood still in fluid form. The condition wherein blood merely gravitates into the most dependent portions of the body but still fluid in form: a. Such condition of the hand is known as: a. Which is classified as mutilation: a. Intentionally cutting off the ear d. Both d. Loss of eye due to stabbing b. b. Orchidectomy in a case of prostatic cancer . Hypostatic lividity c. Insertion of the penis into ears or other orifices as well as insertion of other objects into the vagina e. Diffusion lividity. Cadaveric spasm Post-mortem rigidity Rigor mortis Death stiffening Rationale: The key to the question is the gun is held tightly on his hand. urethra. etc. tongue. Zoophilia Rationale: Breakdown the word. The following does not qualify under simple seduction because the woman is not single or a widow of good reputation. A farmer left alone in his farm by his wife for one month and had sexual relations with his dog. The seduction of a 17 year old student who is a virgin by her high school teacher is called: a.Rationale: Mutilation is defined as the INTENTIONAL act of looping or cutting any parts of a living person. Ac of lasciviousness b. The abnormal sexual act is: a. a virgin. “Zoo” refers to animals and a dog is an animal so the answer is d. Sexual intercourse by a man with a married woman. Other acceptable terms would be bestiality. Adultery Rationale: The following represents adultery because it involves sexual intercourse with a married woman. committed by means of deceit is considered: a. 88. Causes congestion only of the affected area b. Simple seduction c. Pedophilia d. 89. Masturbation b. Act of lasciviousness Rationale: Elements include abuse of trust. When is laceration of the hymen considered superficial? a. Homosexual c. Incomplete and not reach the base of the hymen Rationale: A superficial lacertaion does not go beyond one-half of the whole width of the hymen. between the ages of 12-18. 87. . There is diffused abrasion of the affected area c. which translates to desire for animals. and the offender is a person in public authority. Ordinary qualified seduction d. 90. Does not go beyond one-half of the whole width of hymen d. Simple seduction c. Consented abduction b. Qualified seduction d. Illegitimate children c. Manceres children d. 92. a. Parricide b. When the evidence presented corresponds to the precise point at issue and proves the fact in dispute without the aid of any inference. and signed by him later is termed: a. Therefore. 93. Three days after her delivery. Dying declaration b. 94. Direct . blood typing is used to disprove rather than prove paternity. 95. Mr. Circumstantial c. Murder Rationale: The child is not less than 3 days old. but 3 day old already. May establish that the alleged father could not have been the real father Rationale: In paternity suits. a blood typing test: a. Deposition Rationale: A deposition is the out-of-court oral testimony of a witness that is reduced to writing for later use in court or for discovery purposes. answered by the subject. Adulterous children b. The children of a priest and a nun are: a. it is called. Sacrilegious children Rationale: Illegimitae children are children conceived and born outside a valid marriage. Tracing d.91. Hearsay b. Cruz suspected that his wife was having an affair with their neighbor. but parricide. he killed the child. In a paternity suit. Homicide c. Has no legal importance b. May prove conclusively that the alleged father is the real father c. Infanticide d. Oral testimony d. the act is no longer qualified as infanticide. May demonstrate that the alleged father could have been the real father d. He is guilty of: a. Documentary evidence c. A written record of evidence given orally and transcribed in writing in the form of question by the interrogator. Expert witness b. Ordinary witness c. Deep laceration c.Rationale: The following is the definition of direct evidence. 99. Paid witness d. the degree of laceration is: a. The most prominent sign of death is: a. This is quantitative determination of the chloride content of the blood in the right and left ventricle of the heart: a. If the hymenal laceration involves more than one half of the width of the hymen but does not reach the base. Cessation of heart action and circulation c. Insensibility of body loss of power to move . Getller’s test b. but not reaching the base. It is defined as a laceration that involves more than onehalf of the width of the hymen. Progressive fall of the body temperature b. All of the above Rationale: An ordinary witness is a witness that goes to court and testifies on matters he has perceived while an expert witness is a witness that goes to court to render his expert opinion on his specialty field. 98. Loord’s test Rationale: The Gettler’s test is used to measure the amount of chloride in each chamber of the heart. 96. A physician witness who testifies in a court on matters he perceived from his patient in the course of a physician-patient relationship is considered as an: a. Complete laceration d. Complicated laceration Rationale: Definition of deep laceration. 97. D Direct evidence is evidence that proves the fact in dispute without the aid of interference or presumption. Winslow’s test c. Cessation of respiration d. Takayama test d. Superficial laceration b. c. 100.Rationale: Fall of temp. b.Accounts for the multiple injuries . of 15 to 20 degrees Fahrenheit is considered as a certain sign of death. d. Injuries sustained in a vehicular accident upon being hit by the bumper is classified as Lacerated wound Primary impact injury Secondary impact injury Tear/putok Rationale: Primary impact – Contact with vehicle Secondary impact – Subsequent impact of the pedestrian to the ground . a.