N.B: Please any suggestions inform me by mail: [email protected] thanks. Saudi Counsel Exams for Lab.Technician Instruction: Select one best answer for the following multiple choice Questions: General Question 1. One is not found (involve) in colorimetric: 1-Cuvett 2-light source 3-Photo sensor and analyzer 4-fule source 5-Filter 2. The atomic mass of an atom is the number of: 1-Protons and neutrons 2-Protons only 3-Neutrons only 4-Electrons 5-Non of the above 3. Deionization of impure water means: 1-Boiling 2-Filtration 3-Exchange of protons and electrons 4. If you see this sign (symbol) in the lab it means: 1-Flammable 2-Corrosive 3-Oxidizing 4-Explosive 5-Toxic 5. Most common method (technique) used to detect hormone amount in the laboratories : 1-Spectrophotometry 2-Enzyme Linked Immuno Surbant Assay (ELIZA) 6. Test should be kept away from light: 1-Serum bilirubin 7. Buffer solution is: 1-Chaing color when chaing pH 2-Resist acidic pH 3-Resist alkaline pH 4-Weak acid + weak base 5-Strong acid + weak base 8. An indicator is: 1-Change color with change pH 2-Resist acidic pH 3-Resist alkaline pH 4-Weak acid + weak base 5-Strong acid + weak base 9. Heparin is: 1-Protein 2-Enzyme 3-Polysaccharide 4-Oligosaccharide 2 5- Non of the above 10. Not find in the flam photometry : Burner Filter Fuel source Cuvete for sample Photo 11. Low effective sterilization with: Ethyl alcohol 70% Methyl alcohol Chloroform 5%phenol 5% cresol 12. Prolonged fast cause: Hyperglycemia Keton in urine 13. Lens near the slid in light microscope : Objective Eye lenses 14. Does not sterile with hot air oven: Dry glassware Oil Powder Waxes Rubber gloves 15. Autoclave sterilize in temp: 121..c-20-30min 16. Alkali skin burn treatment by neutralization with: Sodium bicarbonate powder Boric acid Acetic acid 1% Cold water Hot water 17. You do not take this stage for treatment small cut In emergency : Clean with soap and water Do pressure with piece Immediately rinse mouth well and water Cover it with water dressing Sterilize 18. the (u) unit used to evaluation of : . Protein in serum . Hemoglobin . Hormone assay Enzymatic activity 19. During reaction of two chemical substances , the color produced asses by . Spectrophotometer . Flame photometer 3 20. To detect pH from solution use : . pH meter . Indicator . Micrometer 21. This Symbol means, when you see in laboratory : . acute flammable . Toxic . Corrosive . Explosive 22. The microscope which used in investigate syphilis is? *light microscope *ultra-violet microscope *dark field microscope 23. How much water should we add to 500ml of a solution of 10% of NAOH to bring it to 7.5%? *666 *250 *166 24. Calibrator sera are? *secondary standards *internal standards *primary standards 25. A buffer made of? *a strong acid + a strong salt *a weak acid + a weak salt *a weak acid + a strong salt 26. The difference between plasma & serum is that plasma? *does not contain fibrinogen *has more water *contains fibrinogen (Plasma) 27. Five ml of colored solution has an absorbance of .500nm the absorbance of 10 ml of the same solution is? *1.000nm *0.250nm *0.500nm 28. Plasma or serum should be separated at the earliest time for estimation of g lucose because? *glucose value increases with time *lyses of blood will occur *glucose value decreases with time 29. Wave Length Visible To Naked Eye: 400-700 nm. 30. Purpose of standard deviation : A-to measure external quality control B-to measure internal quality control C-precise & accuracy D-both a & b 31. Substance used in catalyse reaction : H2o2 4 Haematology 1. Neutrophil count is high in: 1-Acute bacterial infection 2- Iron deficiency anemia 3-Megaloblastic anemia 2. HbA2 is consisting of: 1- 3 . chains and 2 . chains 2- 2 . chains and 2 ß chains 3- 2 . chains and 2 d chains 4- 2 . chains and 3 d chains 5- 3 . chains and 2 d chains 3. The main (most) Hb found in adult is: . Hb A . Hb A2 . Hb F 4. Detection of malaria parasite is by: 1- Thick blood film 5. Leukocyte that involve in Adaptive and Acquired immunity: 1- Lymphocyte 2- Neutrophil 3- Monocyte 4- Basophile 5- Eosinophil 6. Normal range of leukocyte is: 1- 4-11 X 10^9 7. Reticulocyte is immature: 1- RBC 2- WBC 3- Platelet 8. Leukocyte responsible for cellular immunity: 1- T-lymphocyte 2- B- lymphocyte 3- Monocyte 4- Basophile 5- Eosinophil 9. Malaria infection transmitted by: 1- Male anopheles mosquito 2- Female anopheles mosquito 10. One stage prothrombin time used to detect (diagnose) disorders in: 1- Extrinsic coagulation pathway (factors) 2- Intrinsic coagulation pathway (factors) 11. Thrombin time is: 1- Extrinsic coagulation pathway (factors) 2- Intrinsic coagulation pathway (factors) 3- The conversion of prothrombin to fibrinogen in addition of thrombin 5X 10^9 24.Plasmodium Falciparum 2.All of the above 13. With Romanowsky stain . 5.5 12. Monocyte . 75% 23. Monocyte . 15% . 90% . Most sever (serious) malaria infection caused by: 1. Eosinophil 22. Bleeding time test detect the abnormality in : Defect in vessels and platelets 19.Lymphocyte 2. Lymphocyte . Lymphocyte is elevated in : Viral infection Acute bacterial infection Iron deficiency anemia Megaloblastic anemia Non of the above 16.Monocyte 4. Neutrophil . Basophile . One of these cell the largest leukocyte cell: .Plasmodium Ovale 4.Nutrophile 3.6. Which of White blood cell give immunoglobulin : .2-5 lobes and give violet or pinkish granules: Nutrophile Eiosinophile Basophile Monocyte 15.Plasmodium Vivax 5. Neutrophil . .Eosinophil 14. Lymphocyte . Hormone that cause replication of RBC: Erythropoietin 21. Basophil . Leukocyte responsible for response to parasitic and allergic infection: 1.Basophile 5.Plasmodium Malaria 3. Normal range of erythrocyte 4. Thrombin time measure: Convert fibrinogen to fibrin with activate of thrombin 17. S hemoglobin is the same defect of thalassemia but the different is : Long B chain Glutamic acid on B chain is substituted with valine Glutamic acid on a chain is substitutes with valine 20. In presence of clotting defect one of this not measure: Leukocyte count 18.Neutrophil is a common White blood cell present in blood and the percentage of presence is : . Cycle of heme . All Cells Are Nucleated EXCEPT:A. In iron deficiency anaemia : RBCs are smaller than normal = Microcytic 38. Unidirectional movement of WBCs directly to its target is? *sliding *phagocytes *chemo taxis 27.6 . Malaria chizonts are present in? *reticulo-endothelial *leukocyte *RBCs 26. HbA (Adult haemoglobin ) for adult.Enlarged RBCs ( Megaloblastic anemia ) = Macrocytic B.Haemolyzed RBCs 37. Glubin chain 47. Neutrophil Most abundant in WBCs 31. Hemophilia man married to normal woman the incidence of his children is? *carrier male *diseased female *carrier female 29.MONOCYTES . Prolonged application of tourniquet Venous stasis . The defect of thalassemia occurs in: . dominant in adult 32.Crenated RBCs C. The malarial sporozoite in man invades:A-white blood cells B-RBCs C-Reticulo-endothelial cells D-all of the above 46.LYMPH B. Best time for collection of blood for malaria :A-before and after paroxsym B-shortly after paroxsym C-later paroxsym D-just before paroxsym 36. increased calcium level 35. Malaria does not grow in? *EDTA blood *heparin zed blood *Plasma 28. Neutrophil Firstly increased in bacterial infections 34. IVY method of bleeding time For vascular and platelets abnormalities (function) 30. In folic acid deficiency what happens to rbcs :A. HbF (Infant heamoglobin) fetal haemoglobin 33. Eosinophil 25. Estrogen .NADH 5.Sour taste 4.Galactose 3.RBCS D-NEUTROPHIL 48.Glucose + Glucose 5.Non of the above 5.7 C.ATP 4.Direct bilirubin is within the normal 5. calcium 4.Eosin only 3.No change in color of urine 4. Progesterone 5.Acetyl CoA 2.Parathyroid . Hydrolysis of sucrose result: 1.Proton donor 2.High bilirubin in urine 3. Presence one from this substance in urine detect abnormal condition.Turn litmus paper to blue 3.Normal color of stool 4.a. Pentose phosphate metabolism cycle is important to the cell because it give: 1. One is not correctly paired: 1.Direct bilirubin is within the normal 4.High bilirubin in urine 3.Dark color of urine 5.Total bilirubin is elevated 2.Methylene blue only 4. In case of obstructive jaundice one is commonly not found: 1.Clay color of stool 3. .React with alkaline to give water and salt 5. Romanowsky stain consists of: 1.Eosin + Alkaline methylene blue 2.Maltose + Glucose 7.ß. insulin 3.cells.ADP 3.NADPH 6. One is not true about acid: 1.Corpus luteum .Only glucose 2.Total bilirubin is elevated 2. In case of Hemolytic jaundice one is not likely to be found: 1. seminiferous tubules 2. glucagon 2.cells .Fructose + glucose 4. Consider ketose: Glucose Fructose Mannose 8.Indian Ink Bio-Chemistry 1. Non of the above 18. Pyrimidin base: Adenine Guanine Thymine Uric acid Urea 14. One is stimulate on serum calcium level: Prolonged application of tourniquet on arm 17. Non of the above 19. Hypercholesterolemia . One of the above not present in Diabetic mellitus coma : . polysaccharide 21. Nucleus . Triglyceride 20. Endoplasmic reticulum . Mitochondrion . Hyper secretion of insulin cause: Hypoglycemia 12. Does not stimulate with slight hemolysis: Cholesterol 16. Hyperglycemia . Of cholesterol: Chylomicron LDL HDL VLDL Apolipoprtein 11. One use for measure abnormality in kidney : Creatinine 15. Amino acid . Unsaturated fat . Cytoplasm .8 Calcium Phosphates Glucose Urates 9. In cardiac infraction one of the measurements is not benefited: Creatinine 10. Glycolysis done in : . Muscle glycogen Liver glycogen . One of the following has highest conc. Urea is final product of catabolism of: . High number of ketene in urine . Hyperglycemia hormone Glucagon 13. triglyceride . Heart glycogen . Alkaline phosphates is the important enzyme to detect function in : . In which substance give blood glucose when hydrolysis : . cholesterol . Diabetic patient has one of the following symptoms? *acidosis *alkalosis *Dryness 29. Florida Oxalate . Liver disease .0mg/dl 27. Non of the above 24.5mg/dl *1. Heparin . Liver and heart disease . The diabetic patient is going to comma when blood glucose is? *120 mg/dl *160 mg/dl *Less than 50mg/dl 25. Non of the above 22. One jaundice patient has yellow skin. Insulin is regulating blood sugar by? *Increase the influx of glucose into cells *activate glycogensis *All the previous 30. Amylase value is high in the following disease? *salivary glands *pancreas diseases *All of the previous 26. Comma of diabetic patient shows? *glucose grater than 200mg/dl *glucose less than 200mg/dl *glucose grater than 500mg/dl 32. EDTA . Liver . To check the intestinal efficacy the following test is done? *pepsin *lipase *stool fats 31. Acute diabetic patient has? *blood sugar more than 150mg/dl *blood sugar more than 180mg/dl *Glucose & Acetone in urine 28. One of the following anticoagulant used for blood glucose : . Heart disease . Liver and bone . Sodium oxalate . his billrubin is: *2. AST important enzyme to detect abnormality in: . Sodium citrate 23.2mg/dl *5. Bone .9 . Bone matrix can also call? *vascular tissue *fibrous tissue *Osteon . Acid phosphate is? *heart enzyme . Light effects one of the following? *glucose *urea *billrubin 43. Causes of high serum bilirubin are? *overload on liver *haemolysis *all of the previous 38. One of the following is specific diagnostic liver enzyme? *GOT *LDH *GPT 44. Elevated Sodium & Chloride is seen in? *shock *diabetic acidosis *Severe dehydration 35. HbA1C of diabetic patient is important for? *he has to come fasting *short term follow up *Long term follow up 40. Serum LDH is elevated in all the following except? *skeletal disease *cardiac/ hepatic diseases *renal disease 34. With age the renal threshold for glucose? *increase *decrease *does not change 37. One of the following heart enzymes is measured after 4-8hr of chest pain? *GOT *LDH *CPK 42.33. One of the following enzymes is affected by hemolysis? *SGOT *SGPT *LDH 39. One of the following is important before anesthesia? *alkaline phosphates *acidic phosphates *Pseudocholine esterase 45. Which test is better to diagnose chronic bile duct? *total bilirubin *S-GOT *ALP 36. For glucose tolerance test? *collect 5 blood samples only *collect 5 urin samples only *collect 5 blood samples + 5 urin samples 41. One of the following electrolytes is affected by hemolisis? *Ca *Mg *k 50. Exogenous triglyceride is carried on? *VLDL *HDL *Chylomicron 55. Harmful cholesterol is carried on? *HDL *VLDL *LDL 57. Useful cholesterol is carried on? *chylomicron . Endogenous triglyceride is carried on? *LDL *HDL *VLDL 56. For GTT in adults the dose of glucose is? *50gram *100gram *75gram 52. Random blood glucose gives an idea? *to justify blood glucose *fasting patient *blood glucose in urgent cases 54. For GTT in children the dose of glucose is? *30mg *15gram *30gram 53. All of the following are affected by meal except? *glucose *albumin *Creatininine 48. Na+ is the main? *intra cellular anion *intra cellular cation -----(K) *extra cellular cation 49. In Uric acid estimation? *its affected by carbohydrate meal *no need for fasting *The patient has to come fasting 47.*liver enzyme *Prostatic enzyme 46. The best kidney function test? *urea *total protein *creatinine clearance 51. Which of the following is protected from light :Abilirubin B-cholesterol C-total protein (TP. Bacteria can cause pathogenesis to human by: 1-Capsullar 2-Secret enzymes 3-Endogenous toxins 4-Exogenous toxins 5-All of the above 2. All of the following can asses the liver function except :AAST B-ALT C-ALP D-Creatinine 62.*LDL *HDL 58. For lipid investigation patient has to fast? *4-6hr *6-8hr *12-14hr 59.) D-bun (blood urea nitrogen) 61. Bacteria motile gram-rods: Shigella Bordetela pertusis Pseudomonas aeruginoea Yersenia pestis 4. Test Used To Diagnose Obstructive Bile Duct A-Bilirubin B-biliverdin C-urobilinogen D-none of the above 60. Function of pili of the bacteria: 1-Attachment to the host tissue 2-Movement 3-Reproduction (multiplication) 4-Engulf of food 5-All of the above 3. Purine Associated With A-ADENINE B-GUANINE C-URIC ACID D-RNA Microbiology 1. Strict aerobe bacteria Mycobacterium . Org.coli 4-Salmonella 5-Borditella Pertusis 6. Gram-v bacteria color : Dark purple Pale to dark red Orange . (bacteria) arranged in Chinese litters: 1-Corynebacteria Diphtheria 2-Bacillus anthraces 13. One is gram +ve oval (cocci): 1-Bacillus anthracis 2-Meningococci 3-Pneumococci 8. One is always non motile gram ve rods: 1-Haemophilus Influenza 2-Shigella 3-E. One is always oxidase +ve 1-Haemophilus Influenza 2-Pseudomonas aurogenase 16.5. Gram +ve cocci arranged in groups (clusters): 1-Streptococci 2-Staphylococci 15. One is motile gram ve rods: 1-Haemophilus Influenza 2-Bacillus anthracis 3-Pseudomonas aerogenes 4-Vibrio cholerae 5-Yersinia Pestis 7. Best sterilization of Nutrient media done by: 1-Hot air oven 2-Autoclaving 12. Confirmatory test of streptococcus pneumonia: 1-Catalase 2-Optochine disc 3-Coagulase 4-Bile insolubility 5-Bacitracin 14. Xylose lysine Deoxycholate (XLD) is: 1-Selective media 2-Simple media 3-Differential media 4-Enriched media 5-Enrichment 10. One is not a Romanowsky stain: 1-Fields stain 2-Gram stain 3-Geimsa stain 4-Leishman stain 11. A child diagnosis show scarlet fever the cause is: 1-Streptococcus Pyogenes 2-Staphylococci aureus 9. pallidium (Syphilis) 18. All of the above 26. Cytoplasm . Agar . Pilli . The most source of ATP in cell is : . . Cell membrane 28. Z.N stain use for diagnose : Mycobacterium 23. Meat extract agar . 21. Cell wall 27. Minral salts . Mitochondria . The following is ingredient of culture medium: .F: Maconky media 24. Blood agar . Nucleus . Fungi . One of these org gram +ve cocci arranged in pairs : . Media use for differentiate between L. Use for clean slide: Ethyl alcohol Methyl alcohol 25. Meat extract . 22.14 17. Capsule . Flagella . H Ag present in : . Chocolate agar . Selective and Differential medium of entero pathogen is: . Staphylococci . Non of the above . Nutrient agar: Basic media 20. One of these is prokaryotic cell: . Bacteria need dark field to detect T.F and N. Non of the above 29. All of the above Non of the above 30. Org cause bloody in stool: Shigella sp.L. Bacteria . Disease caused by Pyogen stereptococcus: Scarlet fever. Citrate test assis : Mycobacterias Staph Strept Colistridia sp 19. DCA medium . Entameba histolytica . Peptone . Serious that causes food poisoning? *staph albus *salmonella typhi *Salmonella enteritidis 41. Entrococci 31.tetani *C. Shigella soni colored in maconkey & EMB? *colorless *red *pink 37. Blood sample is used to diagnose? *C. Streptococci . The best media for urine culture is? *blood agar *chocolate agar *CLED agar 35.coli *proteus *Non of the previous 38. One of the following is capsulated bacteria? *streptococci *E.coli 42.15 . Substance used in catalyse reaction : H2O2 32. Which of the following culture media is suitable for semi quantitative bacte rial count in urine samples . All the following parameters affecting gram staining except? *use H2SO4 *add absolute alcohol after washing *Delaying the dryness of the slide 39. All of the following is true for salmonella except? *motile *produces H2S *oxidase positive 34. The best sample for the culture of children paralysis virus is? *anal swab *blood culture *stool culture 33.coli *klebsiella Pneumonia 43. Meningococci . The sterilization of autoclave is? *85c for 30min *150c for 30min *121c for 15min 36. All the following bacteria are interobacter except? *E. Which of the following causes UTI & INDOL positive? *klebsiella *staphylococci *E.diphteria *non from them 40. Sterilization is best done by 121c 15 PSI for 15-20 minutes 52. Klebsiella pneumonia Capsulated 50. Pneumoniae : . All is true about Enterobacteriaceae except :aThey are hemolytic and sorbitol b-Ferments Mannitol c-Grow in Methylene blue medium d-Inhibited growth with 6.a-Mc Conkey agar b-Blood agar c-XLD medium d-Mannitol salt agar e-CLED medium 44. 45. Thayer-martin media is the choice for the isolation of the following organis m : APseudomonas Aeroginosa B-Haemophilus influenzae C-Nisseria gonorrhoea 54. All statements are true about proteus mirabilis and Proteus vulgaris except :Oxidase negative & liquefies gelatin a-Exhibits swarming on BAP and Mc Conkey's agar b-Urease positive c-KCN and N2S positive d-Positive to INDOLE test 49. The following organisms are lactose fomenters except a-E. Confirmatory test for Strept. coli b-Enterobacter cloacae c-Shigella sonnei d-Proteus spp.5 % NaCl and/or at temperature 46. Some organisms are to said to be pathogenic if they are containing the follo wing features :Acoagulase B-catalase C-sugar D-antibodies 51. Organism Soluble In Bile :Astaph B-streptococci C-Pneumococci (streptococcus pneumonia) D-Haemophilous influenzae 53. Beta hemolysis is enhanced when group B Streptococci is streaked at an angle in blood agar plate with : A-Streptococci b-Staph aureus c-Micrococcus d-Streptococcus epiedermidis e-Corynebacterim diphteriae 48. All are true of campylobacter jejuni or Which of the following statements ab out campylobacter is false:aGram negative curved bacilli b-Slow growth c-Grow on XLD medium d-Arranged in pairs 47. Faecalis) A-have carbohydrate antigen of group d streptococci B-positive aesculin hydrolysis C-grow in the presence of bile salts D-Do not grow in the presence of 6.5 % Nacl nor at 45 c 61. Coli C-Haemophilous influenzae D-Streptococcus pneumoniae 59. Coli D-Yersinia enterocolitica 57. To differentiate between nisseria gonorrhoea and nisseria meningitidis : A-fermentation of dextrose and lactose B-Fermentation of dextrose and maltose C-fermentation of maltose and lactose D-Fermentation of maltose and sucrose 64. Significant bacteruria . Specimen suitable for microfilaria A-TISSUE B-BLOOD C-FLUID 56. All are true about enterococci except :-(Strept. puria . Blood culture is indicated in the following bacterial diseases except .A-Optochin sensitivity disc B-Bacitracin disc sensitivity C-Bile solubility D-Catalase test 55. Vi Ag is seen in :ACAPSULE B-PILI C-SPORE D-FLAGELLA 60. Streptococci responsible for the majority of human infections are :AGroup A B-beta-haemolytic streptococci C-bacitracin-s and camp ( -) D-all of these E-none of these 63. Which of the following organisms is an anaerobic bacterium :AClostiridium spp. The Following Organisms Are Encapsulated Except :APseudomonas aeroginosa B-E. B-Haemophilus C-E. Coli C-Proteus vulgaris D-Pseudomonas aerginosa E-Enterococcus Faecalis 62. Nutrient agar is :ASelective media B-Differential media C-Special media D-Basic medium 58. and alkaline urine probably indicate urinar y tract infection due to:: A-Staphylococcus epidermidis B-E. Intracellular parasite: E. Which of the following statements about campylobacter jejuni is false A-gram negative curved bacilli B-Arranged in pairs (see-gull) C-slow growth D-Grows on XLD medium E-incubation temperature at 42 c 66. Non motile protozoa: 1-E. The definitive host is an animal: 1-Entamoeba histolitica 2-Toxoplasma Gondii 3-Trypanosoma cruzi 4-E. Infective stage of Entrobius Vermicularis is: 1-Larva 2-Cercaria 3-Egg 4-Cyst 5-Metacercaria 2.coli Toxoplasma gondii Giaradia lamblia Typanosoma cruzi Trichomonas vaginalis 5. The invasiveness of streptococcus pneumoniae is due to the production of: A-haemolsins B-endotoxins C-extotoxins D-Polysaccharide capsule 67.coli 2-Entamoeba Histolytica 3-Trypanosoma cruzi 4-Giardia lamblia . Agar is characterized by all the following except? *freezing point is 42c & melting point is 100c *nutritive *un-nutritive Paracytology 1.A-meningitis B-endocarditis C-Gastroenteritis D-pyelonephritis E-pneumonia 65. Parasite can cause fetal cerebral infection: 1-Taenia 2-Toxoplasma gondii 4.coli 5-Giardia lamblia 3. 5-Trichomonas vaginalis . Entameba histolytica . Egg .Nuclei 10. 3. E.Taenia Sp. Iodine stain of Entamoeba cyst used to detect (diagnose): 1. Generally diagnosed by recovery & identification of typical larva in stool? *hook worms . Parasite can be detected in vaginal and urethral discharge: 1. Diagnostic stage of Ascaris lumbericoidis: 1.Anclystoma Dudenal 4.19 6. 7.Trichomonas Vaginalis 12.Metacercaria 8.coli Toxoplasma gondii Giaradia lamblia Typanosoma cruzi 14. The worm that causes blood in urine? *ascaris *fasciola *Schistosoma haematobium 19. coli .Cell wall 3. Infective stage of Taenia: 1. Tryponosoma Cruzi . Shistosoma hematobium diagnosis: Egg in urine with terminal spine 16.Entrobius Vermicularis 2.Cercaria 3.Larva 2. Cutaneous Leishmanias is transmitted by: Phlebotomus sand fly 15. Toxoplasma gondii 17. Oocyst benefited to diagnose: E.Chromatoidal bars 2. Identification of Leishmania parasite Lymph node aspirate. One of these organism multiply intracellular parasite: . Cercaria . Gardia lamblia . Blood of Microfilaria infection diagnostic with: Wuchereria bancrofti 13. Cyst .histolytica E.Embrocated egg 4.Finding of a typical fertilized egg in stool 11.Cyst 5. Larva . infective stage of Ascaris lumbricodes : . Metacercaria 18.Ascaris Lumbercoidis 9. Autoinfection of human can caused in case of: 1. vermicularis (Pin Worm) b. Best for identification of parasite if you can not see it in stool ( Negativ e in stool ) Concentration Technique 25. A parasite which does not deposit eggs in the intestine a. The causative parasite of Egyptian Bilharisiasis a-Trichomonas Vaginalis b-Schitosoma haematobium c-Schitosoma japonicum d-Schitosoma mansoni e.saginata e.Sucrose 27.Eggs in stool B-larva in stool C-larva in tissue D-cysticercous bovis 28.saginata *Pin worm 21.20 *t.All of the above 24. The intermediate host of Toxoplasma is :A-dog B.fructose B.arabinose D.trichura *s. Which of the following is not laying eggs in small intestine? *hook worm *t. Sugar can not be detected in urine using copper reduction test A. Polio myeletis is transmitted through? *skin *respiration *Feco-oral 22.A. Identification of fertilized eggs in feces Ascaris Lumbricoides 26. The infective stage of Ancylostoma Duodenale is :A. contain sugar source of the spermatozoa energy is: . spiralis 23.T. duodenale c. Glactose . lumbricoides d.stercoralis 20.Galactose C.E.T. Glucose .VDRL & RPR C-RPR ONLY D-VDRL ONLY 29. A semen specimen. What practical Cardiolipin is applicable in laboratory work? A-FTA B.Cat C-mouse D-all E-none 30.A. Mannose . The smallest molecular weight Ig is: 1-IgG 2-IgM 3-IgD 4-IgE 5-IgA 2. IgD .IgG B-IgA C-IgM D-IgE 6. Ig ( Immunoglobulin ) Increased In Case Of Parasitic A. Immunoglobulin is? *B globulin *Alfa globulin *Gamma globulin 5. IgE . One of the immunoglobulin present in trace amount in . Ig can cause HDN :A-IgM B-IgA C-IgE D-IgG 8. ? A-IgM (HEAVIER ) 1St B-IgA C-IgE 7. Fructose Sucrose 27. IgM . IgD is done? serum : Infection & Allergy serum : . IgE . To check the intestinal efficacy the following test *pepsin *lipase *stool fats Immunology 1. B-lymphocyte after attack foreign bodies . IgA 4. IgM . Ig not part of acquired immunity :A-IgM B-IgA C-IgE D-IgG 9.called Plasma cell 3.21 . IgG . IgG . One of the immunoglobulin present in trace amount in . A standard micro plates in ELISA test has? *98 wells *94 wells *96 wells 2.Sensitized RBCs in patient blood 2.method used to detect hormone in the laboratory : .IgM 4.Citrate Phosphate Dextrose adenine (CPD-A) 2.IgM 4. The enzyme in ELISA testing is present in the? *buffer *micro plate *conjugate 3. Sensitized Ab in serum detect by: Indirect antiglublin test 4.Non of the above 3.Sensitized antibody in patient serum 5.IgG 3. Direct anti-antibody test used to detect: (Direct Combs Test) 1.Heparin anticoagulant 4. Indirect anti-antibody test used to detect: (Indirect Combs Test) 1.Non of the above .22 .IgG 3. Washing must be done in all heterogeneous ELISA technique because? *increase the specificity *increase the sensitivity *it removes the excess binding 5. . ELIZA Blood Bank 1.EDTA anticoagulant 3. Blood medium commonly used in blood bank: 1. Antigen antibody complex are? *weakly bound *no bounds *strongly bound 4.Sensitized RBCs in patient blood 2. The label in ELISA tests is? *radio active substance *antibody *enzyme 6. IgA ELISA 1.Saline alanin glucose maltose (SAGM) 2.Sensitized antibody in patient serum 5. Rh-ve patient means he dose not have: 1.c: 1year 1month 4 year 2 year 6year 11.20 day 5. Anti-Human Immunoglubin is: 1.120 day 3.Anti-Ab 3. In Rh-v person . Non of the above 14. Immunoglobulin 15. Life span of red blood cells in the circulation (body): 1. In Anti human globulin test do wash of RBC because all serum contain : .80 days 2. Albumin . b_ globulin . Cold agglutination 16.B antigen 4.IgG 4. 15 days . Anti A1B .130 day 4. Store FFPs at -80..Antigen 12. All cause false v ABO blood grouping except Too short incubation 10. In O+v person No presence of Ag No presence of Ab 13.Non of the above 6.E antigen 2. 35 days . Use O cell tube on lab for: As control To detect Ag To detect Ab 9. CPD_A anticoagulant used to store blood for: . In O blood group the Ab in serum is : . a_glubulin . 5 days . fibrinogen .C antigen Non of the above 7. this Ag not found : D.7 days 8. Reason of false positive ABO in compatibility: .All of the above 5. 45 days .23 5.Coombs reagent 2.D antigen 3. Causes false negative ABO incomparability/ cross matching :a.ANTI-A B-ANTI-AB C-ANTI-B 23. Function of Thyroxin is: 1.Hypoglycemia 5.Stimulate contraction of uterus 3.Increase Oogenesis 2.Cushing disease 2. . Blood transfusion can transmit? *HIV *CMV *All of the previous 19.Exophthalamic goiter 4. Increase in growth hormone causes: 1.Gigantism 3.Not putting antisera c. Antibody found in blood group Ab individuals : A. Anti B . All of the above 17. Anti A .Exophthalamic goiter 4.5-16 *free from syphilis *One year after delivery 18.Deteriorated reagent b.24 . Non of the above . Increase in Thyroxin Stimulating Hormone (TSH) causes: 1.Hypoglycemia 3. Function of Estrogen: 1. To differentiate anti i from anti I A-A1 CELLS B-A2 CELLS C.Cushing disease 2. Why do we have to wash red blood cells in cross matching To remove an excess antibody present in the sample 22.Stimulate contraction of uterus 3.Gigantism 3. Blood donor selection in KSA are all of the following except? *Hb% 12.Increase basal metabolic 2.Increase Oogenesis 2.Under incubation 20. False positive ABO incompatibility/cross matching Cold Agglutinin 21.Cord Cells D -None of the above 24.Increase basal metabolic 4. Cross-Match in (Major X-Matching) Donor Cells + Patient Serum Hormone 1. Immunoglobulin pregnancy test related to: . Increase basal metabolic 11.Mammary glands 7.1 1 mg/dl 0. Hyperparathyroidism hormone cause: Elevated ca level Decrease ca level 9. A.25 1. C.Ovary 2. Stimulate contraction of uterus . Oxytocine hormone function : . Function of Cortisol : . Increase Oogenesis . Increase basal metabolic 12. 2. B. Increase Oogenesis .IgM 3. B. ADH is secreted from? *thyroid gland *anterior pituitary *Posterior pituitary Saudi Counsel Exams for Lab.Human chorionic Gonadotropin 6. The concentration of total bilirubin in the serum of normal adult ranges at. D. E. A. Target of Prolactin in female: 1. Hyper secretion of cortisol cuase: Cushing disease 8. Regulation of calcium level in serum by: Calcitonine hormone only Parathyroid hormone only Calcionine with parathyroid hormone Vitamin D PTH+Vitamin D+calcitonin 10. Stimulate contraction of uterus .IgG 2. While using the pregnancy test we are measuring? *total HCG *beta HCG &LH *beta HCG 13. C. Technician Instruction: Select one best answer for the following multiple choice Questions: 1. 0.1 1 ug/dl 1 10 mg/dl 10 20 mg/dl 100 -110 mg/dl Laboratory tests of hepatic function include: Serum bilirubin Urine bilirubin Excretory function test . Muscle tissue C. Acute pancreatitis C. All of the above 7. Marked elevations in serum amylase levels are seen in: A. A. The hormone insulin helps to maintain constant plasma glucose concentration by: A. Inhibiting glycolysis D. Non of the above C. Liver tissue B. Non of the above mechanisms 6. Ketosis C. Band D 5. Electrolyte imbalance E.D. . Acidosis and Ketosis B. Band C 4. Glycogen. Bone disease B. Acidosis B. In case of uncontrolled sever diabetes mellitus. Bone E. Dehydration D. Salivary gland lesions D. Liver and muscle D. the following biochemical abnor malities appear: A. All of the above 3. All the above mechanisms E. Moving glucose out of cells into the plasma C. Allowing entry of glucose from plasma in to muscle and fat tissue B. the storage form of carbohydrates in the body is predominantly found i n. Sever diabetes mellitus bring about which condition A. Liver disease E. C. Test of intestinal function includes: / A test used to assess intestinal functio n: . Glucose and ketone bodies are found in the urine. 2HPP >180 D. Electrolyte imbalance E. Presence of sugur in urine 10. 80 mg/dl B. In chemical or latent type diabetes: A. 60 mg/dl D. B. All of the above 8. 70 mg/dl C. Non of the above statements is correct 9. FBS >150 B. The glucose tolerance test result is normal E. Which statement is true about chemical or latent diabetes: A. The 2-hour postprandial serum glucose level exceeds 180 mg/dl D. OGTT is normal E. A technician working in the clinical chemistry lab must immediately report to hi s supervisor a plasma glucose level equal to: A. 50 mg/dl E.Dehydration D. 120 mg/dl 11. The fasting blood sugur level exceeds 150 mg/dl. Presence of acidosis and ketosis C. Plasma K+ Concentration / K+ concentration C. 13. 16. D. 19. Directly proportional to the intensity of the color B.35 1.12. B. the amount of light absorbed is: A. Measurement of serum caroteniods D. C.45 mmol/l D.1 mg/dl Exceeds 2. In A. The hemoglobin buffer system B. None of the above In spectrophotometeric. Inversely proportional to the absorbance E. 136 B. D. The phosphate buffer system C. E. 1 mg/dl 0.36 1. BothAand B D. Plasma HCO3 Concentration / HCO3-concentration D.45 mmol/l /1. B. None of the above Jaundice. 1. Directly proportional to the amount of light transmitted B. None of the above / CL-concentration The most important buffer system present in blood is: A. Non of the above In spectrophotometeric determination. 18. Lactose tolerance test B. 15.36 1.5 mg/dl Exceeds 5 mg/dl None of the above significant bacteriuria the cfu/ml urine is: > 10^5 cfu/ml < 10^5 cfu/ml > 10^3 cfu/ml < 10^3 cfu/ml . Directly proportional to the concentration of solute in the solution C. Directly proportional to the concentration of the analyte D. 1. Plasma Na+ concentration / Na+ concentration B. becomes evident when the bilirubin serum level reaches a concentration of: A. A. Inversely proportional to the emitted color The concentration of Sodium in normal serum is: / normal Sodium in adult 145 mmol/l / 135 145 mmol/l A. D-xylose absorption test C. None of the above / None of the above The best estimate of plasma osmolality is represented by:/ The Principal of body water osmolality is: A. the amount of light of a specific waveleng th absorbed by a colored solution is: A. C. 136 145 mg/dl / 110 220 meq/l C. Inversely proportional to the amount of solute C. The bicarbonate/carbonic acid buffer system D.45 mg/dl / 20 50 mg/dl E. 17. 14. Fecal fat analysis E. a condition characterized by deposition of bilirubin in the sclera of the eyes and in the skin. The acetate/acetic acid buffer system E. The test used to differentiate pathogenic staphylococci is: A. Oxidase C. Catalase B. Coagulase . Black B.D. CSF B. Pink D. Buffy coat D. the best anticoagulant is: A. Yellow-brown 24. Optochin C. Colorless E. --++ C. Neomycin B. Novobiocin 21. ---+ 23. . Heparin 22. Sodium polyanesthol sulphonate (SPS) D. ++-B. Feces E. Citrate B. None of the above 25. coli are: A. ASO test 20. Oxalate C. Green C. The best specimen for recovery of polio virus for culture is: A. +++D. For blood culture. The IMVIC reaction of E. Bacitracin D. Blood clot or throat washing C. On EMB or Mac Conkiy agar media. members of shigella-salmonella group produce sm all colonies which are: A. Group A Streptococci are differentiated from other Beta-haemolytic streptococci by disc containing: A. All of the above E. House fly/ House fly D. Horse fly/ Anopheles mosquito 28. Man may acquire toxoplasma from: A. Dogs D. Trophozite C. Non of the above 26. Cyst and/or trophozite D. Tania saginata B. Sand fly/ Sand fly C. Tsetse fly/ Tsetse fly B. Cats C.The diagnostic stage for Giardia lamblia in stool is: A. Mice B. Pigs 27. All Leishmanial infections are transmitted by / Vector for Leismania infection A. Cyst B. Taenia solium D. Dwarf tapeworm: A. Hymenolepis nana C. Dipylidium caninum . Yellow colonies C. Quellung s test is positive with the following organisms EXCEPT: A. Shigella sonnei D. Viruses resemble living thing.29. Grow D. All are true for salmonella typhi EXCEPT: A. E1. Blue colonies B. The following organisms are lactose fermenters EXCEPT: A. B. XLD medium E. Corynebacterium diphtheria 32. Streptococcus pneumonia B. Reproduce 30. White colonies 33. Are crystalline C. Are motile B. Proteus spp. CLED medium D. Growth of vibrio cholera on TCBS medium produces: A. Klebseilla pneumonia D. Human is the main reservoir or carrier. 34. MacConkey s agar B. they: A. Green colonies D. Mannitol salt agar 31. Enterobacter cloacae C. . Which of the following culture media is suitable for doing semi-quantitative bac terial count of urine specimens? A. colli B. Haemophilus influenza C. Blood agar C. Possesses H & O antigen C. the main reservoir is human B. Urease. Direct gram-staining is routinely performed on the following specimens EXCEPT: . H2S positive with gas E. Serratia liquefaciens C. The following are members of Enterobacteriaceae family EXCEP: A. Providencia alcalifaciens D. KCN and phenylalanine negative D. Which of the followings statements about Campylobacter Jejuni is false? A. Produces H2 S on TSI. All is true for salmonella EXCEPT A. Yersinia pseudotuberculosis E. Gram negative curved bacilli B. Klebsiella rhinoscleromatis B. Produces acid from glucose but no gas 35. Contains O and H antigen C. Oxidase positive D. Arranged in pairs (see-gull) C. Indole positive 36. Grows on XLD medium 38. Slow growth D. XLD & HE media E. Campylobacter fetus 37. aspirated fluids and discharges B. 41.002 um Bacteriological culture media are generally sterilized using: A. Polarizing microscope D. Bright field microscope B.2 um/ 0. 0. Bright field microscope B. 0. 2. Urine E. CSF C. t he total magnification is: A. 8 um/ 5. C.60 ù D. 100 C /30 min B. Bunsen burner Serum can be sterilized using membrane filter of porosity / Bacterial sterilizat ion of serum can be accomplished by filtration using a porosity of A.02 um D. 47. Dark field microscope C. 43.22 um/ 0. 10000 Which of the following microscopes would you use to examine a smear of bacteria stained by Gram stain? A. 90 C/30 min D. Pus. 44. Fluorescent microscope Which of the following microscopes would you use to examine a smear stained with a fluorochrose: A. 0.2 um C. sputum D.22 ù B. 10 B. 0. The auto calve B.39. Filtration D. 42.0 um B. Dissecting microscope D. 121 C /30 min C.8 ù C. 45. 46. Fluorescent microscope The resolution of the bright field microscope is: A. 6 um/ 0. 100 C.0 ù The temperature-time cycle when using the autoclave to sterilize is: A. 100 C /15 min Which of the following materials would you sterilize using the oven? . 40. The oven C. Dark field microscope C. 2. A. 1000 D. Stool When using a X10 eye piece and the X10 objective of a bright field microscope. Serum C. Distilled water The primary stain of the gram stain is: .A. Culture media B. Sand D. X100 51. 8%-9% C. Agar is used as a solidifying agent in bacterial culture medium at a concentrati on: A. Yellow D. Red 50. Agar D.A. X40 D. Malachite green D. Crystal violet B. 1%-2% . 10%-11% B. Blue B. Crystal violet B. Safranin C. Malachite green D. X10 B. Which color do gram negative bacteria appear? A. Safranin C. The solidifying agent in bacteriological culture media is: A. Iodine 48. Starch 52. Resin C. Which objective of the microscope requires the use of immersion oil between the slide and the objective? A. Which of the following reagents is not used in the gram staining technique? A. Green C. Iodine 49. X20 C. Wax B. Histolytica B. Agar melts at 100 C 54. Endolimax nana D. E. Sattelitism around the Staph. tetani D. 1%-3% 53. H. Which of the following is not true? A. Agar is nutritious C. Mesophilic B. H. Bacteria which has an optimum temperature for growth at 60 C are termed: A. None of the above 56. Zoophilic C. What organism that char. E. Thermophilic D. C. hartmani . influenza B. Parasite that has a chronatiodal bodies or the cigar shaped: A. coli C. dueriyi C.D. Balantidium Cole E. E. Halophilic 55. Agar solidifies at 42 C D. Agar is inert B. Aureus on blood agar: A. S. japonicum D. Trichomonas Vaginalis B. 3 neg & 3 positive control 66. Sprozoite in man invades:/ Sproziote of malaria invades man through the: A. CK-MB B. fasciola Hepatiea B. Vivax B. CK-BB 65. 40 mg/dl C. falciparum D. S. Endolinax nana 58. A parasite which does not deposit eggs in the intestine: A. are free in urine: A. Trichenilla 67. malaria C. Any of the above 64.57. hematobium C. 2 neg & 2 positive control D. Parasites that neither lay eggs nor: A. Schistosoma mansoni E. P. Hookworm D. E. WBC / White Blood cell B. Leukocytes D. histolytica B. P. trichiurea B. AST C. In urinary infection the ff. RBC / Red blood cell C. Schistosoma japonicum D. coli C. In Antigen Antibody reaction the panel should have such A. Enlarge RBC: / Which malarial parasite cause enlargement of the RBC: A. hematuria B. All of the above 61. ovale 62. T. Egyptians Hematuria: A. All of the above 63. A. mansoni 60. S. below 25 B. P. ALT D. Ingestion of RBC in a trophozeite: A. Schistosoma haematobium C. The probable glucose level: 30 mg/dl A. D. Reticuloendothelial / RES /Muscle tissue / All of the above 59. 60 mg/dl D. The causative parasite of Egyptian bilharzias: A. 2 neg & 1 positive control C. P. E. vermicularis . 1 neg & 1 positive control B. Nitritis are positive C. E. In myocardial infection what enzyme are resp. Ascaris C. That are freely filterable by the glomerular that se . A. Major cross matching 70. A. ALT 72. Other than Insulin what hormone that maintain the glucose level A. doudenale C. Means of clearable of subs. In acute pancreatities what is the test to be determine: A. Somatostatin 73. lumbricoides D. T. 60-80 mg/dl B. What is the normal value of FBS if it is 100% venous blood? A. AST D. 200-210 mg/dl 71. Trichinella D. T. Trichiuris 69. 80-120 mg/dl D. In blood transfusion the patients Red cells and donor plasma are req. Hook worm B. Pin worm C. Lactate Dehydrogenises C.B. Growth hormone C. Measurement of Clearance of subs. Of: A. Which of the following neither lays eggs nor deposits larvae in the intestinal c anal: A. spiralis 68. Amylase B. saginata E. Glomerular filtration Rate is indi. 100-120 mg/dl C. A. That are freely filterable by the glomerular B. Glucagon B. Minor cross matching B. Creatinine Determination: A. All of the above 75. All of the above 74. Dysfunction of hepatocellular C. Increased Serum bilirubin: A. B&C E. Overloaded of Bilirubin in the liver B. Entamoeba hystolitica B. The trophozoite which contains red blood cells in the cytoplasm belongs to this parasite: A. What is the best time to collect blood for malarial smear: A. All of the above 76. Esterification of conjugated D. Entamoeba coli D. Muscle C. Entamoeba gingivalis C. Heart D. Non of the above 77. At the beginning or just when the paroxysm is about to start . Iodamoeba butschlii E. Any of above D. Skeletal B.cret by tubules and is retainable C. C. B. Once stained. The technician should inform the physician immediately when the blood glucos e level is: A. it cannot be removed by acid C. 60 mg/dl B. Klebsiella pneumoniae B.85 g% B. Chocolate Agar E. Peptone water C. It is very easy to stain E. 50 mg/dl C. MAC C. diphtheria B. The only enrichment medium of following is: A. Cystine lactose Electrolyte Deficient (CLED) D. BAP D.50 g% 85. All are member of the Family Enterobacteriaccae are EXCEPT: A.5 g% E. 6. F. 110 mg/dl E. Campylobacter jejni 84. Which of the following indicates a blood agar plate: A. Nutrient broth B. It is easily stained by Grams stain B. Chocolate agar C. Non of the above 83. Pseudomonas aeroginosa D. 8. Normal saline D. 0.B. 120 mg/dl 79. It easily decolorizes after stain D.085 g% C. Selenite broth E. Which of the following is an enrichment medium: A. Mac Conkey agar 81. 0. Period after the paroxysm 78. To obtain an isotonic media. CLED B. Shigella dysenteriae E. D. Yersinia pestis C. tularensis E.5 g% D. Mycobacterium tuberculosis is called acid fast because: A. M. It is stained by an alkaline stain 86. Chocolate agar 82. the Sodium Chloride content should be: A. tuberculosis C. Period when the paroxysm starts D. Blood agar B. pertussis D. Thiocynate broth 80. 80 mg/dl D. Which of the following is an enriched medium: A. All of the following is a test for liver function except: . 0. Period before the paroxysm start C. Viridan B. Group D E. C. Reduce litmus milk with acid and coagulation D.A. All of the above 87. Bilirubin in urine B. Beta hemolytic C. KCN and H2S positive E. Staphylococcus aureus C. All statements are true about Proteus mirabilis and Proteus vulgaris except: A. Micrococcaciae 88. Enzyme test E. Most of the pathogenic stains of streptococcus belongs to group: A. They are Gamma hemolytic on BAP B. Streptococcus pneumonia B. Oxidase negative and liquefies gelatin B. diphtheria 89. Micrococcus D. Staphylococcus epidermidids E. Ureas positive D. Alpha hemolytic D. All are true about Enterococci except: A. Exhibits swarming on BAP and Mackonkey agar C. Excretory function test D. Bilirubin in Serum C. Beta Hemolysis is enhanced when Group B Streptococcus in streaked at an angle in a blood agar plate with: A. Positive to Indole test 90. Growth in Methyline Blue medium E. . Ferments Mannitol and Sorbitol C. Beta haemolytic C. infection are: Streptococci responsible for the majority of human A. Group A B.5 % NaCl and at temperature 60 C 91. Mycobacterium tuberculosis E. Clostridium tetani B. Have carbohydrate antigen or group D streptococci B. None of these 94. All are true about Enterococci except: A. Fermentation of maltose and sucrose .Inhabited growth with 6. Corynebacterium diphtheria C. The gonococcus and menigococcus can best be differentiated by their: A. Blood culture may be indicated for: A. Fermentation of maltose and lactose C. Non of the above 93. All of these E. Fermentation of dextrose and maltose B. Grow in the presence of bile salts D. Do not grow in presence of 6.5 % NaCl nor at 45 C 92. Shigella dysinteriae D. Bacitracin-S and CAMP (-) D. Positive esculine-hydrolysis and (+) pyr test C. Acute glomerulonephritis E. Protozoa E. Pseudomonas aeruginosa E. Strongyloides stercoralis D. Pseudomonas aeruginasa . Rickettesia C. Mucopeptides B. Fimbriae C. 3 minutes 104. Identified by finding mainly the rhabditiform larvae in fresh stool: A. The thickness of bacterial cell wall ranges between A. Which contain more peptidoglycan A. 15 minutes E. Trichinella spiralis 96. coli C. Staphylococcus epedermidis B. Endotoxins are chemically: A. 1 hour C. Which of the following is biological indicator used to monitor steam steril izers. Polysacharides 103. Streptococci pharyngitis and cellulites D. Proteus vulgaris D. Enterobiu vermicularis C. Which of the following are prokaryotes? A. Rickettsiae 102. Fungi D. 2 hours B. 45 minutes D. Minimum time required for sterilization by moist heat at 136 C is A. Scarlet fever C. pyuria. and alkaline urine probably indicate urinar y infection due to: A. Chlamydia D. Toxic shock syndrome B. Chlamydia 99. Bacteria B. Slim layer 100. 5-10 nm C. Gram positive bacilli B. E. Enterococcus faecalis 98. Proteins C. Flagella B. Lipopolysacharides D. Ascaris lumbricoides B. 2-5 nm B. 15-20 nm 101. The determination of ASO titer is used in the laboratory diagnosis of: A. 10-15 nm D.95. The organs of adhesion in bacteria are: A. Gram negative bacilli C. Microcapsule D. A. Rheumatic fever 97. Significant bacteriuria. Alcohol C. Heart muscle B. Soya four E. Bacterial genes are transferred by means of all following except: A. Transduction C. None of the Above 114. Leishman s stain D. Te rate of decolonization is the fastest in Grams stain with A. Bacillus stearothermophilus C. Acetone B. Malachite green 108. Clostridium difficile 105. All of the following are transport media except: A. 10% D. Carry Blair s medium D. The usual concentration of blood in the blood agar medium is: A. 5% C. The indicator in Mac Conkey agar is: A. For providing micro aerophilic atmosphere the preferred mixture is: A. All of the following are oxidase positive except: A.B. It adds nutritive value to the medium 109. Methyl Red C. All of the above 112. Phenol Red D. Hydrogen + Carbon dioxide C. Neisseria gonorrhea . 15% 111. Oxygen + Carbon dioxide D. Transformation B. Acetone plus iodine 107. Neutral Red B. Best method of staining bacterial capsule is: A. Nitrogen + Carbon dioxide B. The sources of Peptone include: A. Ammies medium B. Alkaline peptone water 110. 2% B. Conjugation 106. Bromophenol Blue 113. Mixture of Acetone and Alcohol D. Bacillus anthraces D. India ink preparation B. It melts at about 95 C B. Mutation D. Casein C. Stuart s medium C. It solidifies at about 34 C C. Which of the following is not true about Nutrient agar: A. Fibrin D. It doesn t inhibit the growth of bacteria D. Grams stain C. Hydrogen peroxide B. Which of the following produce urease: A. Respiratory infections C. Group B streptococci cause: A. Neonatal meningitis B. Brucella 115. Haemophilus parainfluenza C. Haemophilus influenza cause: A. The most commonly tested virulence factor in staphylococci is: A. Enterotoxin 119. 10% Sodium chloride broth C. Tributyrim D. S. S.B. All following species of Staphylococcus do not produce coagulase except A. S. haemolyticus 121. Escherichia Coli B. Vibrio cholera E. Endocarditis C. All of the above 122. Proteus Vulgaris C. Meningitis B. 2% milk agar B. intermmedius D. Chromobaterium violaceum B. Salmonella gallinarum D. Pseudomonas aeruginosa C. Gardnerella vaginalis C. Tetra methyl-P-phenylene diamine C. Coagulase B. Streptococcus haemoliti 117. Eikenella corrodens D. Otitis media E. Gardnerella vaginalis D. Which of the following can grow on MacConkey agar: A. The colonies of Bordetella pertussis look like: A. hominis C. Chromobacterium species 123. Proached egg . Hyaluronidase C. Septic abortions D. Eikenella corrodens 124. Haemophilus species B. Fibrinolysin D. Thioglycollate broth 118. S. Chemically the oxidase reagent is: A. None of the above 116. Capitis B. All following produce oxidase except: A. Salmonella typhi D. All above 120. Selective medium used for the isolation of Staphylococcus aureus is: A. Conjunctivitis D. Loeffler serum slope D. Which of the following are true about Neisseria meningitides: A. Presence of metachromatic granule C. All above 132. Blood tellurite agar C. Sliver paints D. Linocomycin C. Morphological features of C. All above 134. Mercury drops C.B. Cough plate method C. Bordet Gangou medium C. Oxidase positive C. The chemotherapeutic agents contained in modified New York City (MNYC) medi um are: A. Chocolate agar B. JK group of corynebacteria are universal sensitivity to: A. The best medium for the isolation of Bordetella pertussis is: A. All above 130. All of above 131. Amphotericin B B. These are Gram negative diplococci B. The best method of sample collection for Bordetella pertussis: A. Arranged at acute angles E. Glucose and maltose B. diphtheria are best developed on: A. Neisseria lactamica C. Draughtsman 125. diphtheria: . Require 5-10% of carbon dioxide for growth D. Trimethroprim E. Neisseria catarrhalis D. Chocolate agar 133. Throat swab 126. Neisseria meningitides utilizes: A. Pernasal swab B. Post nasal swab D. Which of the following are typical about morphology of Corynebacterium diph theria: A. Erythromycin D. Neisseria meningitides B. Which test is used to ascertain toxigenity of C. Sucrose and lactose D. Colistin D. Diamidine-penicillin-flouride medium D. Teracycline B. Blood agar B. Club shaped at the ends D. Neisseria gonorrhoeae 128. Gram positive thin bacilli B. Which of following is capable of growth at 22 C A. Glucose and lactose 129. Vancomycin C. Maltose and sucrose C. Chocolate agar with bacitracin 127. Proteus E. . 20 minutes 136. 5% sulphuric acid B. Enrichment medium for Salmonella is: A. Schick test D. Serratia 138. Salmonella O antigens are also share with: A. A smear stained with Ziehl Neelsen stain should not be declared negative unless it has been examined for at least: A. Shigella B. All above 139. leprae. Escherichia coli C.A. 15% sulphuric acid D. In Ziehl Neelsen staining used for M. 5 minutes B. 10 minutes C. Enterobacter D. Citrobacter B. Elek s test B. 15 minutes D. 20% sulphuric acid 137. None of the above 135. Klebsiella C. 10% sulphuric acid C. Dick test C. Selenite F C. Voges proskauer (VP) negative organism is: A. Tetrathionate broth B. Shigella D. the decolorizing agent used is: A. Any of above 140. S. S. CPK C. Virulent form of typhoid fever 141. GPT B. Intramuscular injection increase the activity of the following enzyme: A. ONPG test is positive in all the strains of: A. Early stage of typhoid fever B. S. Typhoid encephalopathy C. sonnei D. Carrier state D. dysenteriae 142. S. Immunoglobulin in allergic condition C. CK-MB . Alpha globulin 143.Strontium chloride broth D. Determination of antibodies to Vi antigen in Widal test helps in diagnosis of: A. ChronicImmunoglobulin D. IgM is A. Acute Immunoglobulin B. boydii C. Flexneri B. Prostatic enzyme 148. GOT B. PPBS D. Na. Candida . CPK 151. All of the above E. Estimation of G6PDH is a test A. GPT C. One of the following is specific diagnostic enzyme A. GOT C. Spectrophotometer B. CPK B. Pancreatic enzyme C. Non of the above 152. Acid phosphates 153. All of the above 145. AMP pathway enzyme D. Gardenela B.D. Chlamydia C. Fructoseamine E. Cardiac enzyme B. GGT B. RIA 147. Lishmanisasis B. ELISA D. In blood Glucose estimation the following is required A. T diagnose pancreatic disease 149. CPK D. Female anopheles transmits which disease: A. Lipase C. GOT D. Alkaline Phosphatase is A. LDH D. Vaginal discharge occur with all except: A. Bone enzyme D. Glycosylated Hb C. Cardiac LDH can be substituted by one of the following A. One of the following is pancreatic enzyme: A. Trypanosoma D. Placental enzyme C. Malaria 146. Glucose -6-phosphate dehydrogenase is: A. HBDH 150. Live enzyme B. LDH 144. Flame photo meter C. K and Cl are best measure? A. To diagnose myocardial infection C. To diagnose hemolytic anemia B. Fasting blood glucose B. Filariasis C. Salmonella entreritidis C. One of the following is Gram positive bacilli: A. None of the above 157. Gonorrhea 154. Specificity B. E. Filaria C. Malaria B. Flagella D. The following parasite can seen in the blood: A. Sensitivity C. coli D. Staph. Anthrax B. Small intestine C. Directly related B. Niesseriae C. All of the above 158. Trypnosoma move by A. Non of the above 155. Stomach B. They men the same D. Reversely related C. Trypanosoma D. Salmonella typhi . Linearity D. A dichromatic analysis is carried to increase A. None of the above 156. Cilia C. Sensitivity and specificity are: A. Lishmania E. Pseudopodia B. Clostridium spelica D. Albus B. None of the above 159. Entamoeba histolytica cyst is appear in which part of gastrointestinal trac t: A. Pseudopadia B. Cilia C. Serious orgasm that cause food poisoning: A.D. Non of the above 161. Giardia move by A. Large intestine D. Trichomonous Vaginalls E. Non of the above 160. Flagella D. (wash with 10 % conc. Technician) Strong Urea s Producers . (Changes of Color / Ph Range) When It Becomes Red .43 SAUDIA LICENSE EXAMINATION FOR TIPS FOR HEALTH SPECIALIST (For Lab. (Colored Dark Purple) Iodine Stain for Entamoeba Histolytica . (Coryenbacterium Diphteria) Alkali burns . (Bordetela Pertusis) (Border Gongour Medium) Albert Stain Is Good For . (Recovery Of Eggs In Perianal Skin) Causes whopping Cough . (Lowenstein Jensen Medium LJ) Slight Haemolysis Cause . (intrinsic factor abnormalities). Prothrombine Time Detects .For Nisseria Gonorrhoea) Prolactin Is Produced By . (Extrinsic Factor Abnormalties ) . (Chlamydia Trachomatis) Identification of Enterobius Vermicularis . (Mammary Gland) Estrogen Is Produced By . (Alkaline) Gram + Bacteria on Gram Stain . (Acidic) When It Becomes Blue . (Anterior Pituitary Gland) Target Organ Of Prolactin . (Ovary) Causes Of Conjuctivitis Trachoma/ Causative Agent . DCA (Deoxycholate Citrate A gar) What Is The Function Of Thyroxine (T4) . (Proteus Species) Selective and Differential Medium For Enterobacter . Acetic acid) An Indicator Means . (For Identification of Chromatoidal Bod ies) Medium for Mycobacterium Tuberculosis Tb . (Increased K Level) Visceral Leishmaniasis Caused By (Leishmania Donovan) . (It Is Used In Metabolism) Chocolate Agar . (Kala Zar) PTT detects . (Cap) Is Best For Haemophilus Influenzae) (Thayer Martin. Cellular / Cell Immunity . Citrate Test Differentiates . (Pseudomonas Aeroginosa) Function of Cortisol . (Flagellar Antigen) Causes Scarlet Fever . (Gram Negative Enterobacteriaceae) Example salmonella is citrate + Indirect antiglobulin test .140 (Random)) H Antigen . Pneumonia from Strep. (4..5 . not in myocardial infarction (MI) . (Staph Aureus) Ziehl Nelson stain is used for . (T-Lymphocyte/Lymphocytes) Monocyte . (HDL Cholesterol) Albert stain . Viridans) Chinese letter like bacteria . (Tsetse Fly) Identification of malarial parasites & RBCs morphology . (Metabolsim) Best Fixative for Blood Film .44 Found in hyperglycemic coma . (Ethyl Alcohol) Causes Oriental Scar . (has no D antigen) Storage form of glucose . (Corynebacterium diphteriae) AST/SGOT . (Increase only in liver damage.5) Normal Glucose Level . (Phlebotomus sand fly) Intermediate Host Of Trypanosoma . (Detect Antibody/ Antibody Screening Of Sensitizing Patient's Rbcs) Intermediate host of Leishmania species. (Mycobacterium sp). (Best for Corynebacterium diphteriae) Best for Sterilizing Media . (Also Macrophage) Optochin test is used to . (Leishmania (Cutaneous)) Normal Rbcs Count For Male . (thin smear) Rh negative patients . (Ethyl Alcohol) Best Fixative for Thin Smear .6. (ketones in urine ). (Differentiate between strept. (Autoclave) Oxidase + . (70 . (Streptococcus Pyogene) Causes Scalded Skin Syndrome . (Best For Diagnosing Both Liver damage & myocardial infarction) ALT/SGPT . (Glycogen) Prevent atherosclerosis . Rabigh General Hospital.Acknowledgement I m thank full to my ALLAH And also I thank full to my friend Mr. Dr. Lab. KSA.com . Mostfa. Rabigh. Faiz . Technician NNP. I thank full to Dr. Technician they help me to answers these questions. KSA 0591-342865 Unis_memon85@yahoo. Muhammad Abdul Aziz. Al-Nakheel National Clinic and Mr. Thanks. Pathologist. he help me in download these d ata. Pathologist. Sami Khan. Muhammad Younis Lab.
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